My id is: General Knowledge Quiz | 3 August 2020

GK Quiz 3 August 2020

2020-08-03 | 18 minutes

Q1. With reference to the Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IMPDS), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
  2. It aims to implement nation-wide portability of ration cards.
  3. It provided for the creation of national level data repository.
  4. It will ensure food security of migrant labourers.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2,3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: About Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IMPDS):

  • The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution in 2019.
  • It is a centre sector scheme (the scheme which is implemented and 100% funded by the Central government).
  • Its main aim is to implement nation-wide portability of ration cards
  • It provided for the creation of national level data repository for de-duplication of beneficiary data.
  • It will ensure food security of migrant labourers and improve the mechanism to identify fake/duplicate ration cards.
  • It will bring more efficiency and transparency in the distribution of foodgrains.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q2. The main objective of Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) is

  1. To double the farmer’s income
  2. To provide loan facilities to street vendors
  3. To create job opportunities for housewives
  4. Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) was launched for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing.

Under the scheme:

  • A financial incentive is proposed to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain including semiconductor packaging and electronic components.
  • Electronic manufacturing companies will get an incentive of 4 to 6% on incremental sales of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments (mobile phones and specified electronic components), to eligible companies over a period of next 5 years.

The scheme shall only be applicable for target segments. With the PLI scheme, the government domestic value addition for mobile phones is expected to rise to 35-40% by 2025 from the current level of 20-25% and generate additional 8 lakh jobs, both direct and indirect.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding GST council:

  1. GST Council is formed by the President under Article 279A of the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016.
  2. Prime Minister of India serves as its chairman.
  3. The centre has 2/3rd voting power in the council.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: About GST Council:

  • It is formed by the President under Article 279A of the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016.
  • Union Finance Minister of India serves as its chairman.
  • Ministers are nominated by the state governments as the members of council.
  • The Centre has 1/3rd and the states have 2/3rd voting power in the council, and the decisions are taken by 3/4th majority.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q4. The subject “Education” falls under which list?

  1. State
  2. Concurrent
  3. Central
  4. Residuary

Solution B)

Explanation: The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India contains three lists namely Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

At present, Concurrent list has 52 subjects. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects from State List to Concurrent list, namely

  • Education
  • Forests
  • Weights and measures
  • Protection of wild animals and birds
  • Administration of justice

Both the Central government and the State governments can make laws on subjects falling under concurrent list.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q5. “5+3+3+4 design”, recently seen in news, is related to:

  1. Pedagogical Structure
  2. NASA unmanned spacecraft
  3. Artificial Intelligence model
  4. Russia multirole fighter aircraft

Solution: A)

Explanation:

National Education Policy 2020 proposed 5+3+3+4 design to change the existing 10+2 Curricular and Pedagogical Structure. The design will cover the children in the age group 3-18 years in the following way:

  • Five years of the Foundational Stage include 3 years of pre-primary school and Grades 1, 2
  • Three years of the Preparatory (or Latter Primary) Stage include Grades 3, 4, 5
  • Three years of the Middle (or Upper Primary) Stage include Grades 6, 7, 8
  • Four years of the High (or Secondary) Stage include Grades 9, 10, 11, 12.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q6. Arrange the following island nations in the direction of East to West:

  1. Mauritius
  2. Comoros
  3. Madagascar
  4. Seychelles

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1-4-3-2
  2. 1-3-2-1
  3. 1-2-3-4
  4. 2-3-4-2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Recently, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi and Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr Pravind Jugnauth jointly inaugurated the new Supreme Court building in Mauritius. The Government of India has given grant assistance of USD 28.12 million for this landmark project.

The new Supreme Court has been built in Port Louis. Port Louis is the capital city of Mauritius, in the Indian Ocean and it is known for its French colonial architecture.

Following island nations in the direction of East to West:  Mauritius- Seychelles- Madagascar- Comoros

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q7. Which of the following are the pillars of Digital India programme?

  1. Broadband Highways
  2. Public Internet Access Programme
  3. Electronics Manufacturing
  4. e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2,3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Digital India Mission was launched on 1st July 2015 for providing high-speed internet networks to rural areas. The motto of Mission is ‘Power to Empower’. The Mission is mainly focused on three areas:

  • Providing digital infrastructure as a source of utility to every citizen.
  • To look after the digital empowerment of every citizen.
  • Governance and services on demand.

Following are the nine pillars of Digital India:

  • Broadband Highways
  • Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity
  • Public Internet Access Programme
  • e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology
  • e-Kranti – Electronic Delivery of Services
  • Information for All
  • Electronics Manufacturing
  • IT for Jobs
  • Early Harvest Programmes

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q8. With reference to the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), consider the following statements:

  1. It provided for the additional funding of up to Rs. 3 lakh crore to eligible MSMEs and interested MUDRA borrowers.
  2. Under the scheme, no guarantee fee shall be charged by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd (NCGTC) from the Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).
  3. Tenure of the loan under Scheme shall be ten years.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS):

  • Under the scheme, National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) will provide 100% guarantee coverage for additional funding of up to Rs. 3 lakh crore to eligible MSMEs and interested MUDRA borrowers.
  • The Scheme would be applicable to all loans sanctioned under Guaranteed Emergency Credit Line (GECL) facility during the period from the date of announcement of the Scheme to 31.10.2020.
  • Tenure of the loan under Scheme shall be four years with a moratorium period of one year on the principal amount.
  • Under the scheme, interest rates shall be capped at 14% for NBFCs, and at 9.25% for banks and FIs.
  • NCGTC shall not charge any guarantee fee from the Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statement about Bal Gangadhar Tilak:

  1. He was known as the Father of Indian Unrest.
  2. He founded the Deccan Education Society in 1884.
  3. He gave the famous slogan of 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'.
  4. He joined the Indian National Congress (INC) in the year 1890.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3only
  2. 2 and 4only
  3. 1,2 and 4only
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4: Prime Minister Narendra Modi pays tribute to Bal Gangadhar Tilak on his 100th death anniversary (1 August 2020).

 About Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1856 – 1920):

  • He is an Indian teacher, nationalist and an independence activist.
  • He was given the title of "Lokmanya", which means "accepted by the people (as their leader)”.
  • He was the strongest advocates of ‘Swaraj’ and known as the 'Father of Swarajya'.
  • He joined the Indian National Congress (INC) in the year 1890.
  • He started two weekly newspapers - Kesari (Marathi daily) and The Maratha (English weekly). He also wrote a book titled ‘Gita-Rahasya’ when he was imprisoned during the freedom struggle.
  • He had leaders like Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai as his political companions and they were referred as 'Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate'.
  • He used festivals like the Ganapati festival and Shiv Jayanti to build a national spirit.
  • In 1884, he founded the Deccan Education Society to ensure that youngsters in India attain quality education and in 1885, the Society established the Fergusson College for post-secondary studies.
  • He was called the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’ by Valentine Chirol.
  • In 1916, he started his Home Rule League in Central Provinces, Maharashtra and Karnataka and Berar region.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q10. Which of the following is/are left bank tributaries of Ganga River?

  1. Gomti
  2. Yamuna
  3. Ghaghara
  4. Son
  5. Gandak
  6. Damodar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1,2, 4 and 6 only
  2. 2 ,3, 4 and 5 only
  3. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
  4. 1,3 and 5 only

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Ganga River originates from the Gangotri Glacier of western Himalayas in Uttar Kashi District of Uttarakhand, and flows south and east through the Gangetic Plain of India and Bangladesh, finally flows into the Bay of Bengal.

It flows through several cities namely- Rishikesh and Haridwar (Uttarkhand), Bijnor, Farrukhabad, Kannauj, Bithoor, Kanpur, Jajmau, Prayagraj, Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), Patna, Bhagalpur, Katihar (Bihar), Murshidabad, Plassey, Nabadwip, Kolkata, Baranagar (West Bengal).

Tributaries: Gomti River, Ghaghara River, Gandaki river, and Kosi river are the major left-bank tributaries. Yamuna river, Son river, Punpun and Damodar are the major right-bank tributaries.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Barakah nuclear power plant:

  1. It is a nuclear reactor of Qatar.
  2. It is first nuclear power plant of the Arab world.
  3. It is built by Korea Electric Power Corporation (KEPCO).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3only
  2. 2 and 3only
  3. 1 and 2only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, Barakah nuclear power plant has achieved first criticality.

About Barakah nuclear power plant:

  • Barakah, means “blessing” in Arabic, is a nuclear reactor in Abu Dhabi (United Arab Emirates (UAE)).
  • It is first nuclear power plant of the Arab world.
  • It is located on a sparsely populated strip of desert on the Persian Gulf coast.
  • It is built by Korea Electric Power Corporation (KEPCO) at a cost of some $24.4 billion.
  • Barakah will have four reactors with a total capacity of 5,600 megawatts.
  • It will be almost a fifth of the UAE’s current installed generating capacity.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q12. Which of the following are the members of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

  1. Afghanistan
  2. India
  3. China 
  4. Japan
  5. Maldives
  6. Mauritius

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1,2 and 5 only
  2. 2,3, and 4 only
  3. 1, 4,5 and 6 only
  4. 3,4 and 6 only

Solution: A)        

Explanation:

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established on 8 December 1985 in Dhaka (Bangladesh). It is headquartered at Kathmandu, Nepal. Afghanistan joined SAARC as a member at the 13th annual summit in 2005.

Following are eight members of SAARC:

  • India
  • Afghanistan
  • Maldives
  • Pakistan
  • Sri Lanka
  • Nepal
  • Bangladesh
  • Bhutan

Currently, there are nine observers to SAARC namely China, the European Union, Japan, Iran, Australia, Mauritius, the Republic of Korea, USA, Myanmar.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, coffee is traditionally grown in the rainforests of the Western Ghats in South India.
  2. Coffee plant requires hot and humid climate.
  3. Karnataka produces the largest volume of coffee in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3:  Coffee cultivation in India:

  • Coffee plant requires hot and humid climate with rainfall from 150 to 250 cm and temperatures ranging between 15°C and 28 °C.
  • It requires dry weather at the time of ripening of the berries
  • Well drained, loamy soil is ideal for coffee cultivation.
  • In India, Coffee is traditionally grown in the rainforests of the Western Ghats in South India.
  • Karnataka produces the largest volume of coffee followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q14. Consider the following statement regarding Days Sales Outstanding (DSO):

  1. It is a measure of the average number of days that it takes a company to collect payment after a sale has been made.
  2. A high DSO number may lead to cash flow problems.
  3. It indicates if the company is maintaining customer satisfaction.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. None

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Days Sales Outstanding (DSO):

  • It is a measure of the average number of days that it takes a company to collect payment after a sale has been made.
  • A high DSO number means a company is taking longer to collect its accounts receivable, this may lead to cash flow problems. A low DSO value means that a company is taking fewer days to collect money.
  • It indicates how quickly customers are paying, if the company is maintaining customer satisfaction, if the company’s collections department is working well, if credit is being given to customers that are not creditworthy.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements about Schizophrenia:

  1. It is severe mental disorder.
  2. Hearing voices, false beliefs and trouble with thinking and concentration are main symptoms of Schizophrenia.
  3. It is an untreatable disorder.
  4. It is caused due to genetic as well as environmental factors.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1,2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4: Recently, a pilot study on a south Indian, Tamil speaking group consisting of 97 people with schizophrenia and 103 controls has been conducted by Schizophrenia Research Foundation (SCARF) and Jeevan Stem Cell Foundation, in Chennai. The study has shown associations of the disease with alleles (different variants of specific genes) related to the human leukocyte antigen.

About Schizophrenia:

  • It is severe mental disorder, caused by genetic as well as environmental factors.
  • It typically begins in early adulthood or late adolescence.
  • Hearing voices, false beliefs and trouble with thinking and concentration are some of the main symptoms of Schizophrenia.
  • Therapy and support can help people cope with stress, learn social skills, identify early warning signs of relapse and prolong periods of remission and thus, it is a treatable disorder.

So, statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements about Dhole:

  1. It is a canid native to Central, South, East Asia, and Southeast Asia.
  2. It is listed as vulnerable by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  3. India has the highest dhole population in the world.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Dhole:

  • Dhole is a highly social animal, living in large clans without rigid dominance hierarchies and containing multiple breeding females.
  • It is canid native to Central, South and Southeast Asia.
  • It is listed as endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  • Currently, India has the highest number of dholes, with most populations found in the Western Ghats, northeast India and central India.
  • It comes under Schedule II of wildlife Act, 1972.

(Source: The Hindu)

  • Dhole is a habitat generalist, and can occur in a following variety of vegetation types:
    • primary, secondary and degraded forms of tropical dry and moist deciduous forests
    • evergreen and semi-evergreen forests
    • temperate deciduous forests
    • boreal forests
    • temperate steppe
    • alpine steppe
    • dry thorn forests
    • grassland–scrub–forest mosaics
  • Ongoing habitat loss and transformation, disease and pathogens, persecution of Dholes stems, competition with other species and depletion of prey base are main threats to the Dholes.

So, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.