GK Quiz | 1 August 2020

Q1. Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission:

1. It is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.
2. The First Finance Commission of India was appointed in 1960.
3. Its members are not eligible for reappointment.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, a High-Level Group on Agricultural Exports (HLEG) submitted its report to the Fifteenth Finance Commission.

Finance Commission:

• The President of India, under Article 280, constituted the Finance Commission.
• It redresses equalization of all public services across the States and the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively.
• It composed of a Chairman who is selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members should be selected from among persons who
• have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
• have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
• are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
• have special knowledge of economics
• The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951 under the chairmanship of K.C. Neogy.
• Its members are eligible for reappointment.
• The commission make recommendations to the President of India on the following matters:
• The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid given by the Centre to the states.
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State and Panchayats on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State.
• The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds
• Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.

Statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q2. Arrange the eight core sector industries in the decreasing order of their weightage:

1. Electricity
2. Coal
3. Steel
4. Refinery products

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 4-1-3-2
2. 1-3-4-2
3. 4-3-2-1
4. 3-4-1-2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

The eight core sector industries include refinery products, fertilizer, crude oil, steel, cement, electricity, coal and natural gas. These industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Refinery Products has the highest weightage at 28.04% followed by Electricity (19.85), Steel (17.92), Coal (10.33), Crude Oil (8.98), Natural Gas (6.88), Cement (5.37) and Fertilizers (2.63).

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):

1. It aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
2. It allowed the Central government to designate individuals as “terrorists”.
3. Under UAPA, foreign national cannot be charges.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3:

About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):

• It was passed in 1967.
• It aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
• The investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and this duration can be extended.
• Both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged under UAPA.
• The act was amended in 2019 to empower:
• the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists on certain grounds provided in the Act.
• the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.
• the Director General of NIA to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q4. With reference to the National Security Law, 1980, consider the following statements:

1. It is a preventive detention law.
2. A person may be detained for a maximum period of twelve months.
3. A person detained under the National Security Act cannot appeal anywhere.
4. Under the act, a detained person can be held for 30 days without being told the charges against them.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4:

About National Security Act, 1980:

• It is a preventive detention law, promulgated on September 23, 1980.
• It involves the detainment of a person in order to keep him/her from committing future crimes.
• Under the act, a person may be detained for a maximum period of twelve months. The government can extend the term if found fresh evidence.
• A person detained under the National Security Act can appeal before a high court advisory board but he/she is not allowed a lawyer during the trial.
• Under the act, a detained person can be held for 10 days without being told the charges against them.
• Under the act, the grounds for preventive detention of a person include:
• regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to making arrangements for his expulsion from India.
• acting in any manner prejudicial to the relations of India with foreign powers, the defence of India, or the security of India.
• preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statements 3 and 4 are incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the WHO Executive Board:

1. It is one of the WHO’s two decision making bodies.
2. It is composed of 34 members technically qualified in the field of health.
3. The members of the board are elected for five-year terms.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3only
2. 1 and 2only
3. 2 and 3only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3:

WHO Executive Board:

• There are two decision making bodies of World Health Organization (WHO) viz. WHO Executive Board and World Health Assembly.
• The executive Board is composed of 34 members who are technically qualified in the field of health. They are elected for three -year terms.
• The post of Board Chairman is held by rotation for one year by each of the WHO’s six regional groups.
• Following are six regional groups of WHO:
• African Region
• European Region
• Eastern Mediterranean Region
• Region of the Americas
• Western Pacific Region
• South-East Asia Region
• Three kinds of documents are produced by both the Board and the Assembly
• Resolutions and Decisions passed by the two bodies
• Documents that are presented “in session” of the two bodies
• Official Records as published in WHO Official publications

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q6. With reference to the Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a sub scheme under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban).
2. Under this scheme, existing Government funded vacant houses to be converted into ARHCs through Public Private Partnership for a period of 25 years.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Recently, Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) has been approved as a sub scheme under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) to provide ease of living to urban migrants/poor.

Implementation of ARHCs:

• Existing Government funded vacant houses to be converted into ARHCs through Public Private Partnership for a period of 25 years.
• Public/ Private Entities will handle construction, operation and maintenance of ARHCs on their own available vacant land for a period of 25 years.

The scheme will not only benefit urban migrants/poor in need but also accelerate investment and entrepreneurship in rental housing market.

Under Affordable Housing Fund (AHF) & Priority Sector Lending (PSL), Central Government will provide Concessional Project finance. For promotion of innovative technologies in ARHCs, Technology Innovation Grant and exemption in Income Tax and GST will be given.

So, both statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI):

1. It is used by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as its key measure of inflation.
2. It does not capture changes in the prices of services.
3. CPI for Industrial Workers (IW) is measured by Central Statistical Organization (CSO).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3:

Consumer Price Index (CPI):

• In 2014, it was adopted by RBI as its key measure of inflation.
• It captures changes in prices levels at the consumer level. It captures changes in the prices of services.
• There are four types of CPI as follows:
• CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
• CPI for Rural Labourer (RL)
• CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL)
• CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined)
• CPI for Industrial Workers (IW), CPI for Rural Labourer (RL) and CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL) are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment while CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined) is compiled by the Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8. Consider the following statement about fiscal deficit:

1. It is the excess of government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
2. It reflects the total borrowing requirements of Government.
3. A higher fiscal deficit leads to lower interest rates in the economy.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3:

About fiscal deficit:

• It reflects the total borrowing requirements of Government.
• It is the difference between the Revenue Receipts plus Non-debt Capital Receipts (NDCR) and the total expenditure.
• A higher fiscal deficit leads to higher interest rates in the economy because a high fiscal deficit implies that there will be lesser amount of money left in the market for private entrepreneurs and businesses to borrow, which, in turn, leads to higher rates of interest charged on such lending.

The excess of government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts is known as revenue deficit.

So, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statement with reference to aerial seeding:

1. Under this technique, the seeds do not need to be planted.
2. It is known as the “fire and forget” way of plantation as it requires no attention after it is dispersed.
3. It is a technique of plantation wherein seed balls are sprayed on the ground using aerial devices.
4. This technique eliminates the need for ploughing and digging holes in the soil.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1,2 and 4 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4: Recently, Haryana Forest Department has started aerial seeding across the state on a pilot basis.

About Aerial Seeding:

• It is a technique of plantation wherein seed balls are sprayed on the ground using aerial devices.
• Seed balls refer seeds covered with a mixture of clay, compost, char and other components. Thus, these are safe from birds, ants and rats.
• Inaccessible areas (the areas which are fragmented or disconnected with no forest routes, have steep slopes) can be targeted with aerial seeding.
• Under this technique, the seeds do not need to be planted.
• It is known as the “fire and forget” way of plantation as it requires no attention after it is dispersed.
• This technique eliminates the need for ploughing and digging holes in the soil.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q10. AIM-iCREAST, recently seen in news, is

1. An incubator capabilities enhancement programme.
2. A mars mission of NASA.
3. NASA's first space telescope.
4. An independent body which will work in the area of human rights.

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Recently, Atal Innovation Mission has launched the programme “AIM-iCREAST” in collaboration with the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation and the Wadhwani Foundation. It is an incubator capabilities enhancement programme for a robust ecosystem for creating high-performance start-ups.

AIM’s incubators are set to be upscaled and provided requisite support to foster the incubation enterprise economy. It will provide training to entrepreneurs through technology-driven platforms and processes.

Hence, option A is correct.