GK Quiz | 11 August 2020

Q1. Consider the following statement regarding Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

1. Its chairman and members are appointed by the President.
2. A member of UPSC is not eligible for the second term.
3. It is the central personnel agency in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, educationist professor Pradeep Kumar Joshi has been appointed as the chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

• Part XIV (Article 315 to 323) of the constitution contains provisions regarding UPSC.
• It is a central recruiting agency in India.
• Its chairman and members are appointed by the President.
• A member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years.
• The chairperson and a member of the Commission is (on the expiration of his term of office) not eligible for reappointment to that office.
• A member of the commission (on the expiration of his term of office) is eligible for the reappointment as the chairman of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) or UPSC.

Department of Personnel and Training is concerned with pay and service conditions, classification of services, training and cadre management, etc. It is the central personnel agency in India.

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements about Lok Adalat:

1. It is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms.
2. Only civil cases can be referred to Lok Adalat.
3. The decision made by the Lok Adalats is binding on all parties.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Recently, the Delhi State Legal Services Authority (DSLSA) organized the e-lok Adalat

About Lok Adalat:

• It is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms.
• It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably.
• Decision made by the Lok Adalat is considered to be a verdict of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties.
• Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, Lok Adalats have been given statutory status.
• No appeal against such an award lies before any court of law, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate.
• There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
• Any case pending before any court and any dispute which has not been brought before any court and is likely to be filed before the court can be referred to Lok Adalat.

Provided that any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under the law shall not be settled in Lok Adalat.

So, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3. Who among the following is/are eligible for loans under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund?

1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
2. Marketing Cooperative Societies
3. Farmers
4. Startups

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 4 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Prime Minister recently launched financing facility of Rs. 1 Lakh Crore under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund.

About Agriculture Infrastructure Fund:

• It is a new pan India Central Sector Scheme.
• It will provide medium - long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets through credit guarantee and interest subvention.
• Under the scheme, Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to Marketing Cooperative Societies, farmer producer organisations (FPOs), Agri-entrepreneurs, Startups, SHGs, Farmers, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Joint Liability Groups (JLG), Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored Public-Private Partnership Projects, and Multipurpose Cooperative Societies.
• Under the scheme, all loans will have interest subvention of 3% per annum up to a limit of Rs. 2 crore.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q4. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), consider the following statements:

1. It provides health coverage to all citizens of India.
2. It provides a cover of 5 lakh per family per year for medical treatment in public hospitals only.
3. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: About Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY):

• It was launched on 23 September 2018 to provide free access to healthcare for 40% of people in the country.
• It is a centrally sponsored scheme as the insurance cost is shared by the centre and the state mostly in the ratio of 60:40.
• It a free scheme for the beneficiary.
• It provides 5 lakh per family per year for medical treatment in empanelled public and private hospitals.
• The beneficiaries as identified by latest Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data.
• For effective implementation of PMJAY in alliance with state governments, National Health Agency has been constituted as an autonomous entity under the Society Registration Act, 1860.

So, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect and statement 3 is correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q5. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) works under which ministry?

1. Ministry of External Affairs
2. Ministry of Finance
3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Solution: B)

Explanation:

About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

• It was founded on 4^th December 1957.
• It is an apex anti-smuggling intelligence, investigations and operations agency of India.
• It comes under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q6. With reference to the draft Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) notification 2020, consider the following statements:

1. The clearances for projects can be given even if they have started construction without securing environmental clearances.
2. It requires the project promoter to submit a report only once every six months.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is an important process for evaluating the likely environmental impact of a proposed project. The draft Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) notification 2020 is issued under the powers vested in the central government under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Following are some issues related to draft EIA notification 2020:

• It allows for post-facto approval for projects. Post facto approval is the violation of the precautionary principle and derogation of the fundamental principles of environmental jurisprudence. It implies that the clearances for projects can be given even if they have started construction or have been running phase without securing environmental clearances.
• Time period for the public to submit their responses during a public hearing for any application seeking environmental clearance is reduced from 30 days to 20 days
• The central government gets the power to categorize projects as strategic through this notification. The draft states that no information related to the strategic projects shall be placed in the public domain.
• It requires the project promoter to submit a report only once every year while under the 2006 notification, a promoter was required to submit a report every six months.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative (CHRI):

1. It is a government organization of United States.
2. It promotes adherence to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About the Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative (CHRI)

• It was founded in 1987.
• It is an independent, non-partisan, non-profit, international non-governmental organization working in the area of human rights.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi, India.
• It promotes adherence to the Commonwealth Harare Principles, Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other internationally recognized human rights instruments.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8. The Gaza Strip is located between which of the following countries?

1. Israel and Egypt
2. Jordan and Israel
3. Lebanon and Syria
4. Israel and Syria

Solution: A)

Explanation:

The Gaza Strip, on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea, is located between Israel and Egypt.

According to the Oslo Accord, it is under the Palestinian National Authority.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF):

1. It was created under the Department of Telecommunications in 2002.
2. Parliamentary approval is required for all credits to this fund.
3. It is a non-lapsable fund.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)

• It was established in 2002 under the Department of Telecommunications.
• It ensures that there is universal non-discriminatory access to quality ICT services at economically efficient prices to people in rural and remote areas.
• It is a non-lapsable fund as the unspent amount is accrued for next years’ spending and does not lapse
• It was given a statutory status through Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003.
• Parliamentary approval is required for all credits to this fund.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.