GK Quiz | 13 August 2020

Q1. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest health assurance scheme in the world
2. The scheme covers only four members of a family.
3. It provides a health cover for primary and secondary care hospitalization.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)

• It is the largest health assurance scheme in the world.
• It provides a health cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization in empanelled hospitals, both public and private.
• Earlier, it was known as the National Health Protection Scheme (NHPS).
• PM-JAY subsumed Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) which was launched in 2008.
• It is fully funded by the Government.
• Its cost of implementation is shared between the Central and State Governments.
• 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days post-hospitalization expenses are covered under the scheme.
• There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender.
• To determine eligibility for benefits, criteria from the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 (SECC 2011) is being used.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q2. Twin deficit includes which of the following?

1. Fiscal deficit
2. Capital Account deficit
3. Revenue deficit
4. Current Account deficit

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3 only
4. 2,3 and 4 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Current Account Deficit and Fiscal Deficit are together known as twin deficits.

Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total income of the government and its total expenditure. It equals to total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts).

Current Account is one of the three components of Balance of Payments (BOP). Current Account Deficit (CAD) measures the gap between the money sent out and received into the country on the trade of goods and services.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3. Which of the following form a part of capital account?

1. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
2. Import of services such as banking, insurance
3. Inward & outward tourism
4. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
5. External commercial borrowing

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1, 4 and 5 only
2. 2,3 and 4 only
3. 1,2,3,4 and 5
4. 3,4 and 5 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Capital Account is one of the components of Balance of Payments (BOP).  It is a capital income and expenditure for a country.

Capital Account includes:

• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
• Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
• NRI deposits
• External commercial borrowing (IMF, ADB, WB, etc.)
• External assistance & Grants

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q4. Which of the following is/are a component of Foreign exchange reserves of India?

1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
4. Deposits with International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1,2 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Foreign Exchange Reserves:

• Foreign exchange reserves are cash and other reserve assets managed by the Reserve Bank of India for the Indian government.
• Component of Foreign Exchange Reserves:
• Foreign Currency Asset (main component)
• Gold
• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
• International Monetary Fund (IMF) reserve positions
• China has the highest Foreign Exchange Reserve followed by Japan and Switzerland. India is at 5th position in the list of countries by foreign-exchange reserves

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q5. Nepal shares its border with which of the following Indian states?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Punjab
5. Sikkim
6. West Bengal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1,2, 5 and 6 only
2. 2,3 and 5 only
3. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
4. 2, 3,4 and 6 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Nepal is a country in South Asia. It is located in the Himalayas and also includes parts of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.

Following are five Indian States shares border with-

• Uttarakhand
• Uttar Pradesh
• Sikkim
• Bihar
• West Bengal

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements about Sputnik V:

1. It is the third Covid-19 vaccine to be approved.
2. China becomes the first country to register it as the first COVID-19 vaccine.
3. It is based on the DNA of a SARS-CoV-2 type adenovirus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Recently, Russia has claimed development of COVID-19 vaccine named Sputnik V.

About Sputnik V:

• It is a Russian COVID Vaccine.
• The vaccine has been named as Sputnik, after the first artificial Earth satellite, Sputnik-I launched by the Soviet Union.
• It is the first Covid-19 vaccine to be approved.
• It is based on the DNA of a SARS-CoV-2 type adenovirus.
• It consists of two types of a human adenovirus, each carrying an S-antigen of the new corona virus.

So, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect and statement 3 is correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Adenovirus is a double-stranded DNA virus ranging from 70-90 nm in size.
2. Adenovirus Vector Vaccine uses adenovirus as a tool to deliver genes or vaccine antigens to the target host tissue.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2:  Adenovirus is a double-stranded DNA virus ranging from 70-90 nm in size. They are the common causes of diarrhea, fever, coughs, pink eye and sore throats. They infect intestines, urinary tract, the lining of your eyes, airways and lungs, and nervous system.

Adenovirus Vector Vaccine uses adenovirus as a tool to deliver genes or vaccine antigens to the target host tissue.

Drawbacks of adenovirus vector vaccines include inflammatory responses, pre-existing immunity in humans, immunodominance of the vector genes over transgenes, and sequestering of the vector to liver and spleen.

So, both statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.

 

Q8. Which of the following are the stages of the development cycle of a vaccine?

1. Exploratory stage
2. Pre-clinical stage
3. Clinical development
4. Regulatory review and approval
5. Manufacturing
6. Quality control

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1,4 and 5 only
2. 1,2, 3 and 6 only
3. 2,3,4, and 5 only
4. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6

Solution: D)

Explanation:

There are six stages of the development cycle of a vaccine and these are:

• Exploratory stage: This phase is designed to identify natural or synthetic antigens that might help prevent or treat a disease.
• Pre-clinical stage: In this phase, tissue-culture or cell-culture systems and animal testing are used to determine whether the candidate vaccine will produce immunity.
• Clinical development: It consists of a three-phase process.
• Regulatory review and approval: In this phase, the vaccine developer submits a Biologics License Application (BLA) to the FDA if a vaccine passes through all three phases of clinical development.
• Manufacturing: In this, mass quantities of vaccines is manufactured.
• Quality control: It concerned with sampling, specifications and testing.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q9. Which of the following clinical trials phase studies are primarily concerned with safety?

1. Phase I
2. Phase II
3. Phase III

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Clinical development consists of a three-phase process - phase I, phase II and phase III.

Phase I studies involves initial testing of a vaccine in small numbers of healthy adults. These are primarily concerned with safety.

Phase II clinical studies carry out testing of larger numbers of subjects to provide preliminary information about the ability of a vaccine to produce its desired effect in the target population and its general safety.

Phase III: with this phase studies, protective efficacy and safety of a vaccine are fully assessed. The decision on whether to grant the licence to a vaccine is based on phase III clinical studies.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q10.  Consider the following statements regarding Next Generation Sequencing machines (NGS):

1. Unlike the RTPCR (reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction) that needs primers and probes, NGS only needs custom reagents.
2. It involves scanning of the entire virus genome.
3. It is unable to trace the evolutionary history of the virus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: The Council of scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is working on developing “mega labs”.  The labs will be repurposing large machines, known as Next Generation Sequencing machines (NGS).

About Next Generation Sequencing machine (NGS):

• It involves scanning of the entire virus genome.
• Its sensitivity (ability to confirm those who have virus as positive) is 97.53%.
• These machines can substantially detect the presence of the virus even in several instances where the traditional RT-PCR tests fail.
• As compared to RTPCR, the genome method provides more certainty the virus in question is indeed the particular coronavirus of interest.
• It can also track mutations and trace the evolutionary history of the virus more reliably.
• NGS can help to develop the new diagnostic tests and can help identify more places where the SARS-CoV-2 virus differs from the related virus.
• The RTPCR (reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction) needs primers and probes which is a key hurdle in operationalising such tests on a mass scale early on in the pandemic. Unlike RTPCR, NGS only needs custom reagents.

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements about Great Indian hornbill:

1. It is found only in the Indian subcontinent.
2. In India, it is found in Western Ghats and in North-east India.
3. It is listed as vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Great Indian Hornbill:

• It is one of the larger members of the hornbill family.
• It is found in the Southeast Asia and Indian subcontinent.
• The great hornbill is long-lived, living for nearly 50 years in captivity.
• In India, the bird is found in North-east India and in Western Ghats.
• The bird is state bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is listed as vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
• Main Threats:
• Hornbills used to be hunted for their casques and feathers for headgear
• Illegal logging
• Forest clearance for agriculture

 So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements about Papum Reserve Forest:

1. It is located in western Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It lies on the eastern side of Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary.
3. It is a nesting habitat of Great, Wreathed and Oriental Pied hornbill.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Papum Reserve Forest:

• It is an Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs) in western Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is located between two IBAs, Itanagar Wildlife Sanctuary to the east and Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary to the west.
• It is a nesting habitat of three species of the large, colourful fruit-eating hornbills namely Great, Wreathed and Oriental Pied.
• It forms part of the Eastern Himalayas Endemic Bird Area.
• A large part of the site is covered by Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen and Semi-evergreen Forests, while the higher areas are under Subtropical Broadleaf Hill Forest cover.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.