GK Quiz | 16 November 2020

Q1: With reference to the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA), consider the following statements:

1. It is an Australian immigration policy.
2. It was established through executive action in 2012.
3. It allows some individuals who entered the country illegally as minors to receive a renewable ten-year period of deferred action from deportation and eligibility for a work permit.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA):

• It is an American immigration policy, established by the Obama administration through executive action in 2012.
• It allows some individuals who entered the country illegally as minors to receive a renewable two-year period of deferred action from deportation and eligibility for a work permit.
• It protects from deportation hundreds of thousands of immigrants, often called “Dreamers”, who entered the US illegally as children.

So, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q2: With reference to the 2018 report on “Vital statistics of India based on the Civil Registration System”, consider the following statements:

1. Manipur recorded the best sex ratio in the country.
2. It has been published by the Registrar ­General of India.
3. Among the major states, Kerala had the best sex ratio at birth.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Key highlights of 2018 report on “Vital statistics of India based on the Civil Registration System” published by the Registrar ­General of India:

• Delhi recorded a sex ratio of 929, Haryana 914 and Jammu and Kashmir 952.
• Arunachal Pradesh recorded 1,084 females born per thousand males, followed by Nagaland (965), Mizoram (964), Kerala (963) and Karnataka (957).
• Manipur (757), Lakshadweep (839) and Daman & Diu (877), Punjab (896) and Gujarat (897) recorded the worst sex ratio.
• The ratio was determined based on data provided by 30 States and Union Territories as the “requisite information from six States viz. Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Sikkim, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal is not available”.
• The number of registered births increased to 2.33 crore in 2018 from 2.21 crore registered births the previous year. The level of registration of births increased from 81.3% in 2009 to 89.3% in 2018.
• Among the major states, Kerala had the best sex-ratio at birth, while Punjab was the worst. The sex ratio at birth is the number of females born per 1,000 males.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3: Consider the following statement regarding Munda Rebellion:

1. It was led by Birsa Munda in Andhra Pradesh in 1899-1900.
2. Birsa Munda’s struggle was against the exploitation and discrimination against tribals.
3. It aimed at establishing Munda Raj by driving out the British.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Munda Rebellion:

• It is one of the most important tribal movements, led by Birsa Munda in 1899-1900 in the south of Ranchi, Jharkhand.
• The movement came to be called the ‘Ulgulan’ or the ‘Great Tumult’.
• It aimed at establishing Munda Raj by driving out the British.
• Birsa Munda’s struggle was against the exploitation and discrimination against tribals.
• The followers of Birsa began targeting the symbols of diku and European power. They attacked police stations and churches, and raided the property of moneylenders and zamindars. They raised the white flag as a symbol of Birsa Raj.
• Following were some forces as the cause of the misery the Mundas were suffering

• The land policies of the British were destroying their traditional land system.
• Missionaries were criticising their traditional culture.
• Hindu landlords and moneylenders were taking over their land.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q4: Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about Chief Minister?

1. He is appointed by the governor.
2. Under Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.
3. The Governor can dismiss him by passing a vote of no-confidence against him.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: About Chief Minister:

• The Chief Minister is appointed by the governor.
• Under Article 164 of the Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.
• Theoretically, the Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, in actual practice the Chief Minister remains in office so long as he continues to be the leader of the majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
• The State Legislative Assembly can also remove him by passing a vote of no-confidence against him.
• He can be dismissed by the Governor if he loses his majority support.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q5: Consider the following statements with reference to the Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure:

1. Under Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, an accused has an “indefeasible right” to default bail if the probe is not over in time.
2. Under this section, an accused can be detained in custody for a maximum of 60 days for a crime punishable with a sentence of over 10 years.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2:  Recently, in a judgement, the Supreme Court has held that an accused, irrespective of the merits of the case against him, should be granted “default” or “complusive” bail if the investigating agency does not complete the probe within a prescribed time limit.

Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure an accused can be detained in custody for a maximum of 90 days for a crime punishable with death, life imprisonment or a sentence of over 10 years. It is 60 days of detention if the probe relates to any other offence.

Under Section 167(2), an accused has an “indefeasible right” to default bail if the probe agency failed to complete the investigation on time.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q6: Consider the following statements:

1. A technical recession refers to the sequential decline in GDP for the past two quarters
2. If the depressions continue for years, they are referred to as recessions.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said the country had entered into a technical recession in the first half of 2020-21.

Technical recession refers to the sequential decline in GDP for the past two quarters. This presents economic contraction since the GDP measures the value of all goods and services produced in a country during a specific period of time, in other words, the total expenditure in the economy.

If the recessions continue for years, they are referred to as “depressions”. A depression is a more extreme economic downturn and is quite rare. There has only been one depression in United States history - The Great Depression during the 1930s.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q7: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) consists of which of the following countries?

1. Germany
2. United States
3. Australia
4. Japan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2,3 and 4 only

Solution: B)

Explanation: Recently, the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) has come into existence on the sidelines of the 37^th ASEAN Summit.

About Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP):

• RCEP negotiations were formally launched during the 21^st ASEAN Summit in Cambodia in November 2012.
• It includes the 10 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) members (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam) and the six countries with which the bloc has free trade agreements (FTAs) — India, Australia, China, South Korea, Japan, and New Zealand.
• It does not include the United States and Germany.
• In November 2019, India had opted out of RCEP.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q8: Consider the following statements regarding Tristan da Cunha:

1. It is a United States territory.
2. It is a small chain of islands over 6,000 miles from Peru in the Pacific Ocean.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2: Recently, Tristan da Cunha has declared the largest fully protected marine reserves in the Atlantic Ocean at 687,000 square kilometers.

About Tristan da Cunha:

• It is a UK Overseas Territory inhabited by less than 300 humans.
• It is a small chain of islands over 6,000 miles from London in the South Atlantic and the water around the islands are considered to be the richest in the world.

So, both statements are incorrect and hence, option D is correct.