GK Quiz | 20 August 2020

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 16 (2) of the Constitution of India provides that no citizen shall, on grounds only of place of birth, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.
2. The legislature of a state can prescribe residence within a state as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Article 16 of the Constitution of India provides the right of equal opportunity in the matters of public employment.

Article 16 (1) states that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.

Article 16 (2) states that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.

Article 16(3), allows for making provisions in government appointments with respect to residence. It states that the parliament (not the legislature of a state) can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, or local authority or other authority within that state or union territory.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q2. Which of the following is/are the parameter in Digital Quality of Life (DQL) Index 2020?

1. Internet affordability
2. Internet quality
3. Electronic security
4. Electronic infrastructure
5. Electronic government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1,3 and 5 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1,2,3,4 and 5
4. 2,3 and 4 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

SurfShark, an online privacy solutions provider has recently released the Digital Quality of Life (DQL) Index 2020. It is global research on the quality of digital wellbeing in 85 countries.

The study included five fundamental pillars to indexes the countries

• internet affordability
• internet quality
• electronic infrastructure
• electronic security
• electronic government

DQL Ranking:

• 7 out of 10 countries with the highest DQL are in Europe, with Denmark at 1^st place out of the 85 countries.
• South Africa leads in Africa, New Zealand in Oceania, Canada leads in American continents and Japan in Asia
• Out of 85 countries, India stands at the overall rank of 57, got 9^th place in Internet Affordability, 78^th place in Internet Quality, 79^th place in E-infrastructure, 57^th position in Electronic Security and 15^th place in E-government.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q3. Which of the following is/are the cause of Electromagnetic Interference?

1. Ignition systems
2. Solar flares
3. Auroras
4. Cellular network of mobile phones

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1,2 and 4 only
3. 2,3 and 4 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Electromagnetic interference (EMI):

• It is also called radio-frequency interference (RFI).
• It is an electromagnetic emission that causes a disturbance in another piece of electrical equipment.
• It can be caused by natural and man-made sources include ignition systems, cellular network of mobile phones, lightning, solar flares, and auroras.
• EMI frequently affects AM radios and can also affect FM radios, mobile phones, and televisions, as well as observations for radio astronomy and atmospheric science.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q4. Which of the following is/are the main parameters in the Atal Rankings of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) 2020?

1. Pre Incubation & Incubation Infrastructure & Facilities to Support I&E.
2. Programs and Activities on IPR, Innovation, Start-up and Entrepreneurship.
3. Courses on Innovation, IPR and Entrepreneurship Development.
4. Successful Innovation and Start-ups & Funding Innovation & start-ups.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2,3 and 4 only
3. 1,2,3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

The Atal Rankings of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) 2020 has been released.

About ARIIA:

• It is an initiative of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) which is renamed as Ministry of Education.
• It ranks all major higher educational institutions and universities in India.              
• Following are six main parameters which are primarily focused by ARIIA:
• Programs and Activities on IPR, Innovation, Start-up and Entrepreneurship.
• Pre Incubation & Incubation Infrastructure & Facilities to Support I&E.
• Annual Budget Spent on Promoting and Supporting I&E Activities.
• Courses on Innovation, IPR and Entrepreneurship Development.
• Intellectual Property (IP), Technology Transfer and Commercialization.
• Successful Innovation and Start-ups & Funding Innovation & start-ups.
• It ranks institutes under the following categories:
• Institutes of National Importance, Central Universities, and Centrally Funded Technical Institutes
• Government and Government Aided Universities
• Government and Government Aided Colleges
• Private or Self-Financed Universities
• Private or Self-Financed Colleges
• For the first time, ARIIA 2020 included a special prize category for women only higher educational institutions.
• ARIIA 2020- Top colleges/universities:
• IIT Madras got the top position under the category of Institutes of National Importance, Central Universities, and Centrally Funded Technical Institutes;
• Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai under Government and Government Aided Universities;
• College of Engineering, Pune under Government and Government Aided Colleges;
• Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology, Bhubaneswar under Private or Self-Financed Universities.
• S R Engineering College, Warangal under Private or Self-Financed Colleges.
• Avinashilingam Institute for Home Science and Higher Education for Women, Tamil Nadu got the top rank in Higher Educational Institutions Exclusively for Women.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q5. “AYURAKSHA” has been recently launched for-

1. Students
2. Police personnel
3. Small and medium Farmers
4. Employers of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Recently, All India Institute of Ayurveda and Delhi Police have jointly launched ‘AYURAKSHA’ for police personnel.

It is aimed to maintain the health of frontline Covid warriors like Delhi police personnel and under this, Ayurveda medicines will be provided to nearly 80000 personnel of Delhi Police.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q6. Through which of the following states does the river Yamuna flows?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Haryana
4. Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 2,3 and 4 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About River Yamuna:

• It is a major tributary of river Ganges and originates from Yamunotri glacier on the southwestern slopes of Banderpooch peaks of the Lower Himalaya in Uttarakhand.
• It passes through Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Haryana and Delhi.              
• Tributaries:
• Left bank tributaries: left: Hindon, Tons, Giri, Rishiganga, Hanuman Ganga, Sasur Khaderi
• Right bank tributaries: Chambal, Betwa, Ken, Sindh, Baghain

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q7. Which ministry has constituted ‘Jaya Jaitley task force’?

1. Ministry of Women and Child Development
2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
3. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
4. Ministry of Science and Technology

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Ministry of Women and Child Development has constituted the Task Force to examine matters pertaining to age of motherhood, imperatives of lowering MMR, improvement of nutritional levels and related issues. The task force is headed by Jaya Jaitley.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements about Animal Welfare Board of India:

1. It is a statutory body.
2. It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
3. At present, it comes under the Ministry of Food and Agriculture.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3:

About Animal Welfare Board of India:

• It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
• It is a statutory advisory body.
• The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Food and Agriculture of the Government of India. In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides.
• It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.
• The Board consists of 28 Members, who serve for a period of 3 years.
• It is headquartered at Ballabhgarh in Haryana, India.
• Functions:
• It suggests changes to laws and rules about animal welfare issues.
• It issues publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues.
• It oversees Animal Welfare Organisations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them if they meet its guidelines.
• It provides financial assistance to recognized Animal Welfare Organisations (AWOs).

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q9. With reference to the Common Eligibility Test (CET) conducted by the National Recruitment Agency (NRA), consider the following statements:

1. Initially, NRA will conduct preliminary test for the Railway Recruitment Board, the Staff Selection Commission and the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection.
2. It will conduct CET to screen candidates for technical posts.
3. The CET score of the candidate shall be valid for a period of five years from the date of declaration of the result.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Recently, Cabinet approves creation of National Recruitment Agency (NRA), paving the way for a transformational reform in the recruitment process for central government jobs.

National Recruitment Agency (NRA) is a multi-agency body to encompass the first level test by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and the Institute of Banking Service Personnel (IBPS).

About Common Eligibility Test (CET):

• The exam would be held online in 12 languages to begin with, and centres would be set up in every district to increase access.
• The CET score of the candidate shall be valid for a period of three years from the date of declaration of the result. The best of the valid scores shall be deemed to be the current score of the candidate.
• There shall be no restriction on the number of attempts to be taken by a candidate to appear in the CET subject to the upper age limit.
• As per the government’s policy, candidates from the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes would be given a relaxation in the age limit.
• The CET would be held separately for three levels — graduate, 12^th pass and 10^th pass — for the non-technical posts of the three agencies.
• The examination will be based on a common curriculum and will be conducted online twice a year in 12 languages.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q10. Which of the following is/are a tributary of the river Godavari?

1. Indravati
2. Mand
3. Manjira
4. Hasdeo
5. Pranahita

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1,3 and 5 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1,2,3,4 and 5
4. 1,2 and 3 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

About Godavari river:

• It originates from Trimbakeshwar near Nasik in Maharashtra.
• It is the second longest river after the Ganga of India.
• It extends over states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union territory of Puducherry.
• Tributaries:
• Left Bank Tributaries: Kadva, Purna, Banganga, Kadam, Indravati, Sabari, Dharna, Taliperu, Sabari, Pranahita, Shivana.
• Right Bank Tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, Sindphana, Nasardi, Kinnerasani, Manair

Mand, Ib, Seonath, Hasdeo are left bank tributaries of Mahanadi.

Hence, option A is correct.