GK Quiz | 23 July 2020

Q1:  In which of the following scenario, a member of a house can be disqualified on grounds of defection?

1. If an independent candidate joins a political party after the election.
2. If a member belonging to a political party voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party.
3. When at least one-thirds of legislators of a political party are in favour of the merger into another party.
4. If a nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1,2 and 4 only
4. 1,2, 3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation:

The Rajasthan Speaker has challenged deferring of anti-defection proceedings by State High Court against the former Deputy Chief Minister of Rajasthan, Sachin Pilot. Under Anti-defection law, legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature whose decision is final in this regard. The law is provided in the Tenth Schedule which was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52^nd Amendment Act.

A member of a house belonging to a political party can be disqualified on grounds of defection:

• If an independent candidate joins a political party after the election.
• If a nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature.
• If he voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party.
• If he votes contrary to the directions of his political party or does not vote in the legislature. In this case, the member shall not be disqualified if the member has taken prior permission, or is condoned by the party within 15 days from such voting or abstention.

The Anti-defection law allows for a party to merge into another party if at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. Earlier a merger refers to a defection by one-third of the elected members of a political party but it was changed to at least two-thirds by 91^st Constitution Amendment Act, 2003.

In Kihota Hollohon vs. Zachilhu (1992) case, Supreme Court specifically barred any judicial intervention prior to the decision-making stage and clarified that the 10^th schedule is constitutionally valid. SC also held that decisions of the Presiding Officer on the question of disqualification on grounds of defection shall be open to judicial review.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q2: Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

1. It was founded on October 18, 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
2. The members of NGT are not eligible for reappointment.
3. It is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) has questioned the Environment Ministry, Oil India Limited (OIL) on drilling in National Park.

About National Green Tribunal (NGT):

• It was founded on October 18, 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
• It is guided by the principles of 'natural justice' and not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.
• Members:

• It is composed of the chairperson, expert members and the judicial members. The chairman is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
• A selection committee, headed by a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India, shall be constituted by the central government to appoint its members.
• The members are not eligible for reappointment and shall hold office for term of five years.
• It can have 20 members of each of judicial members and the expert members.

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3: Consider the following statements about Lonar crater:

1. It is located in Bhopal district of Madhya Pradesh.
2. It is a notified National Geo-Heritage Monument.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: According to a study by a Pune-based institute, Lonar Lake turned pink due to a large presence of the salt-loving Haloarchaea microbes.

About Lonar Lake:

• Lonar Lake or Lonar crater is a saline, soda lake, located at Lonar in Buldhana district of Maharashtra.
• It is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument. Geo-heritage refers to the geological features that can be utilized for education or that are inherently or culturally significant offering insight to earth’s evolution or history to earth science. Geographical Survey of India (GSI) is responsible for the protection and identification of geo-heritage sites.
• It is formed in basaltic rock and situated inside the Deccan Plateau.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q4: Consider the following statements about Transcatheter Aortic Valve Replacement (TAVR):

1. It is a procedure to replace a narrowed aortic valve that fails to open properly.
2. It has been reserved mostly for younger and healthier patients.
3. With TAVR, recovery time is less for patient as compared to open-heart surgery.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, at Sir HN Reliance Foundation Hospital, doctors have saved the life of a 62-year-old farmer with Transcatheter Aortic Valve Replacement (TAVR).

Transcatheter Aortic Valve Replacement (TAVR) is a minimally invasive procedure to replace a narrowed aortic valve that fails to open properly. It has been reserved mostly for sick and old patients. As compared to open-heart surgery, with TAVR, patient has lower risks of disabling strokes and death and recovery time is also less. The TAVR procedure can be done through very small openings that leave all the chest bones in place while for an open heart surgery, the chest is surgically separated or open.

Aortic valve disease is a disease in which the main artery of the body (aorta) and the valve between the main pumping chamber of the heart doesn't work properly.

So, statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect and hence, option B is correct.

 

Q5: With reference to the India Ideas Summit 2020, consider the following statements:

1. It is organized by U.S.-India Business Council (USIBC).
2. The theme of this year’s summit is Building a Better Future.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: India Ideas Summit 2020 held virtually on 22 July 2020. It has been organized by U.S.-India Business Council (USIBC). The summit stressed on India-US cooperation and future, and aimed at creating an inclusive bilateral trade environment between India and the United States. The theme of this year’s summit is Building a Better Future.

The U.S.-India Business Council (USIBC) is also part of U.S. Chamber of Commerce founded in 1975. It represents the top global companies operating across India and the United States. The council’s mission is to increase bilateral engagement and to promote trade relations between India and the United States.

So, both statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.

 

Q6: The Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary shares a border with which Indian state?

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Sikkim
4. Manipur

Solution: B)

Explanation:

China making new claims on Sakteng forest sanctuary of Bhutan. Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary is located in eastern Bhutan and is well connected by Jomotshangkha Wildlife Sanctuary in the South and shares border with the Indian State of Arunachal Pradesh in the East and North. It was created in part to protect the migoi (a yeti-like cryptid). It protects several endemic species includes the black-rumped magpie and the eastern blue pine.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q7: Who serves as the Global Environment Facility (GEF) Trustee?

1. World Bank
2. World Wide Fund
3. Asian Development Bank
4. Greenpeace

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Global Environment Facility (GEF) is an international partnership of countries, civil society organizations, private sector and international institutions, established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. GEF funds are available to countries with economies in transition and developing countries. The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8: Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is _________.

1. A Biosphere Reserve
2. One of the 19 biodiversity hotspots in the world
3. An identified Important Bird Area

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Dibru-Saikhowa National Park:

• It is situated in the south bank of the river Brahmaputra in Assam.
• It is also a biosphere reserve and one of the 19 biodiversity hotspots in the world.
• It is an identified Important Bird Area.
• Its forest types include semi-evergreen forests, patches of wet evergreen forests, littoral and swamp forests and deciduous forests.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q9: Consider the following statements regarding G-Secs:

1. It is a debt obligation of the Indian government to fund their fiscal deficit.
2. It can be issued only by the Central government.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Government security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument and a debt obligation of the Indian government to fund their fiscal deficit. These can be issued by the Central government or the State Governments. Such securities are short term (Treasury bills) or long term and are issued through auction conducted by the RBI on the auction platform. These securities carry practically no risk of default and thus, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect and hence, option A is correct.

 

Q10: Consider the following statements about Madhubani painting:

1. It is practiced in Nepal and Bihar.
2. The central themes in these paintings are based on Hindu Gods and Goddesses.
3. The painting has GI (geographical Indication) status.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Madhubani Painting or Mithila paintings:

• It is practiced in Bihar (India) and Nepal.
• Its central theme is based on Hindu Gods and Goddesses and the main theme is supported by traditional geometric patterns.
• It is one of the most famous and oldest Indian art forms.

• Following are some main attributes of these paintings:
• Double line border
• Use of jolting nose of faces of figures
• Abstract-like figures of deities
• Ornate floral patterns
• Bold use of colours and bulging eyes
• It has received the GI (geographical Indication) status.
• Karpuri Devi, Dulari and Mahalaxmi are few prominent artists.
• It used the colours made of natural extracts from plants and vegetables.
• The colours are usually dark and bright with pigments like ochre and lampblack, and are applied flat with no empty space is left and no shading.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q11: With reference to Jal Jeevan Mission, consider the following statements:

1. It aimed to provide safe and adequate quantity drinking water to every rural household of the country by 2024.
2. It is based on a community approach to water.
3. The Centre and states contribute on a shared basis in the ratio of 70:30.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Jal Jeevan Mission was announced in 2019 with the main aim to provide piped water supply to all rural households by 2024 with the motto “Har Ghar Jal”.

Following are some important features of the scheme:

• The Centre and states contribute on a shared basis in the ratio of 50:50 for states, 90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan States, and 100% for Union Territories.
• The Mission is based on a community approach to water.
• It also implements some sustainability measures such as water conservation, groundwater recharge, management of household wastewater for reuse and rainwater harvesting.
• It looks to create a jan andolan for water, thereby making it everyone’s priority.

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q12: With reference to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Act, a person who obtains a good for a consideration, resale and for commercial purposes is defined as a consumer.
2. It covers transactions only through offline modes.
3. It provided for a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: The earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986 has been replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 which has come into effect from July 20.

Features of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019:

• A person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration is defined as a consumer under the act. A person who obtains a good or service for commercial purpose or a good for resale is not defined as a consumer under the act.
• The Act defined six consumer rights:
• Right to be heard
• Right to Safety
• Right to seek Redressal
• Right to Consumer Education
• Right to be Informed
• Right to Choose
• It covers transactions through all modes (online and offline).
• It also provided for Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) which will set up the Central government.
• CCPA will have an investigation wing, headed by a Director-General.
• It will regulate matters related to unfair trade practices, misleading advertisements and violation of consumer rights.
• CCPA may impose a fine on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh which may extend to Rs 50 lakh, and for a false or misleading advertisement, it provides for imprisonment of up to two years which may extend of up to five years.
• The act provided for Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (CDRC) which will be set up at the district, state, and national levels.
• It provides for mediation which to be held in consumer mediation cells. The members of the mediation cell to be selected by a selection committee consisting of the President and a member of Consumer Commission. It also provides a provision of no appeal against settlement through mediation.
• Against an unfair contract, complaints can be filed only at the State and National levels. Appeals from the State CDRC will be heard by the National CDRC and appeals from a District CDRC will be heard by the State CDRC. Final appeal will lie before the Supreme Court.

So, statement 1 and 2 are incorrect and statement 3 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q13: Consider the following statements about the Global Fund for AIDS, TB and Malaria (GFATM):

1. It is a partnership between governments, the private sector, civil society and people affected by the diseases.
2. It is administratively dependent on the World Health Organization (WHO).
3. 95% of its fund comes from the private sectors and foundations.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. None

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Gay and bi-sexual men, sex workers, drug users, transpersons and people living with HIV/AIDS have petitioned the Global Fund for AIDS, TB and Malaria (GFATM) protesting against being ignored by government during the pandemic.

About GFATM:

• It is also known as Global Fund, founded in 2002.
• It is a partnership between governments, the private sector, civil society and people affected by the diseases
• The G8, at its summit in Genoa, Italy in July 2001, endorsed the call for its creation.
• It was hosted by the World Health Organization in January 2002 and was formed as an independent, non-profit foundation under Swiss law.
• In January 2009, it terminated its administrative services agreement with the World Health Organization and became an administratively autonomous organization.
• In-country partners implement the programs.
• Implementation is overseen by country-level committees and Country Coordinating Mechanisms.
• 95% of its fund comes from the public sector and the remaining 5% comes from the private sectors and foundations.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q14: Consider the following pairs:

1. Quit India Movement                 -            8^th   August
2. Sadbhavana Diwas                      -           20^th August
3. World Humanitarian Day           -            1^st    August
4. Muslim Women Rights Day       -            19^th  August

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Quit India Movement or the August Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942 at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee, against the British Rule of India.

20 August is celebrated every year as Sadbhavana Diwas to commemorate the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

19 August is observed every year as the World Humanitarian Day to pay tribute to aid workers who risk their lives in humanitarian services.

1 August 2019 is recorded as Muslim Women Rights Day as it is a historic day when the Bill against Triple Talaq was made a Law.

Hence, option D is correct.