GK Quiz | 27 November 2020

TOPIC: GS 2 - Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies.

Q1: Consider the following statements about the speaker of the Lok Sabha

1. He is elected by the Prime Minister of India.
2. He automatically disqualifies from his post if he is no longer the Member of Parliament.
3. He comes at the third position in the Order of Precedence of Government of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Recently, Vijay Kumar Sinha has been elected as Speaker of Bihar assembly

About the speaker of Lok Sabha:

• The chairman or the Presiding Officer of Lok Sabha is known as Speaker.
• He is elected from all other members by simple majority.
• He comes at 6^th position in the Order of Precedence of Government of India.
• He is the head of the house and presides over the sittings of Parliament and controls its working.
• He presides over joint sitting of both houses of Parliament.
• He decides the agenda of various discussions and has the power to adjourn or suspend the house/meetings if the quorum is not met.
• During resolution for removal of Speaker, he is not in position to cast his vote even if there is tie
• He automatically disqualifies from his post:

• • if he tenders his resignation to the Deputy Speaker
  • if he is no longer the Member of Parliament
  • if he is of unsound mind and that too declared by the court of law
  • if he holds the office of profit under central government or any state government
  • if he is no longer the citizen of India or voluntarily accepts the citizenship of any other country
  • if he is declared undischarged insolvent
  • if he is removed from the post of Speaker by passing a resolution by majority of the members of Lok Sabha

So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.

Q2: With reference to the Member of Parliament local area development (MPLAD) scheme, consider the following statements

1. It is a plan scheme fully funded by Government of India.
2. The funds released under the scheme are lapsable.
3. The Lok Sabha Members can recommend for implementation anywhere in the country.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Recently, Bombay High Court has ruled that the Union government was within its powers to suspend the MPLAD scheme and divert such funds to combat Covid-19. Besides, Covid-19 is a disaster so the government will have to resort to Disaster Management Act. It is within its powers to invoke the Act.

About the Member of Parliament local area development (MPLAD) scheme:

• It is a plan scheme fully funded by Government of India, launched in December, 1993.
• It seeks to provide a mechanism for the Members of Parliament to recommend works of developmental nature for creation of durable community assets and for provision of basic facilities including community infrastructure, based on locally felt needs.
• The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.
• In order to encourage trusts and societies for the betterment of tribal people, a ceiling of Rs. 75 lakh is stipulated for building assets by trusts and societies subject to conditions prescribed in the scheme guidelines.
• MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
• Under the scheme, the MPs have a recommendatory role under the scheme.
• Under the scheme, funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities and these funds are non-lapsable. The liability of funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility.
• The members of Lok Sabha can recommend works in their respective constituencies.
• The elected members of the Rajya Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the state from which they are elected.
• Nominated members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select works for implementation anywhere in the country.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 and 3 are incorrect and hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.

Q3: With reference to the Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA), 1968, consider the following statements

1. It is a law made by the Parliament of India under List No. 33 in Concurrent List of 7^th Schedule of Constitution of India.
2. Under this, police has right to arrest without a warrant anybody violating the Act’s provisions.
3. It was established to ensure the delivery of certain services, which if obstructed would affect the normal life of the people.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 only
4. None

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Recently, the government of Uttar Pradesh has extended the Essential Services Maintenance Act in the State, banning strikes in all departments and corporations under it for a period of another six months.

About Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA), 1968:

• It is a law made by the Parliament of India under List No. 33 in Concurrent List of 7th Schedule of Constitution of India.
• It was established to ensure the delivery of certain services, which if obstructed would affect the normal life of the people. These include services like health services (doctors and hospitals), public transport (bus services).
• It gives police right to arrest without a warrant anybody violating the Act’s provisions.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Storage, transport and marketing of agricultural produce and issues and related constraints; e-technology in the aid of farmers.

Q4: Consider the following statements with reference to the Mega Food Parks scheme

1. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries administers this scheme.
2. State Governments are required to form a separate SPV for implementation of Mega Food Park project.
3. Srini mega food Park is the first mega food park located in Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct(s)?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Recently, Food Processing Minister inaugurated a mega food park (MFP) at Phagwara in Kapurthala district of Punjab.

About Mega Food parks scheme:

• Since 2008 it is being implemented by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries in the country.
• It aims at providing a mechanism to link agricultural production to the market by bringing together farmers, processors and retailers.
• For setting up a MFP, a maximum grant of Rs 50 crore is given in minimum 50 acres of contiguous land with only 50% contribution to the total project cost.
• State Government, State Government entities and Cooperatives are not required to form a separate SPV for implementation of Mega Food Park project.
• It is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body Corporate registered under the Companies Act.
• The Srini mega food Park is the first mega food park, located at Chittoor in Andhra Pradesh.

So, statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and Agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.

Q5: Arrange the following countries from north to south

1. Kuwait
2. Qatar
3. Bahrain

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1-2-3
2. 1-3-2
3. 3-2-1
4. 3-1-2

Solution: B)

Explanation:

The correct sequence of the countries from north to South – Kuwait, Bahrain, Qatar

Hence, option B is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 1 - Important Geophysical Phenomena 

Q6: Consider the following statements

1. Northeast monsoon occurs between June and September.
2. La Nina conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon.
3. Inter Tropical Convective Zone (ITCZ) is a high pressure belt encircling Earth near the Equator.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1,2 and 3
3. 1 and 2 only
4. None

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: About the Northeast monsoon:

• It is called the winter monsoon.
• It occurs during October to December, while the southwest monsoon occurs between June and September.
• It is confined to the Southern peninsula.
• La Nina means The Little Girl in Spanish and it is opposite of El Nino which is the warm phase of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO). It refers to the large-scale cooling of ocean surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. La Nina conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Southwest monsoon, but has a negative impact on rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon.

Inter Tropical Convective Zone (ITCZ) is a low-pressure belt encircling Earth near the Equator. It is a zone of convergence where the trade winds meet. Its northward and southward movements along the equator determine the precipitation in the tropics.

So, all statements are incorrect and hence, option D is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 1- Important Geophysical Phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc.

Q7: Consider the following pairs

1. Hurricanes Southwest Pacific
2. Tropical cyclones North Atlantic
3. Typhoons Southeast Asia
4. Willy-willies North-western Australia

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2,3 and 4 only
3. 1,2,3 and 4
4. 3 and 4 only

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Recently, the tropical cyclone Nivar has made landfall along the Tamil Nadu-Puducherry coast.

About Tropical Cyclone:

• It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans and is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain.
• Eye is a characteristic feature of tropical cyclones. It is a central region of clear skies, warm temperatures, and low atmospheric pressure.
• These types of storms are called typhoons in Southeast Asia and China, and hurricanes in the North Atlantic and eastern Pacific. They are called Willy-willies in north-western Australia and tropical cyclones in the southwest Pacific and Indian Ocean region.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Government Policies and Interventions for Development in various sectors and Issues arising out of their Design and Implementation, GS 3 - Food Processing and Related Industries in India.

Q8: Which of the following is/are a component scheme under Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)?

1. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
2. Mega Food Parks
3. Infrastructure for Agro-Processing Cluster
4. Human Resources and Institutions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 2 and 4 only
2. 1,2 and 3
3. 1,2,3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

About Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY):

• It is a comprehensive package aiming to create modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate to retail outlet.
• It is a central sector scheme.
• Under the scheme, capital subsidy in the form of grants-in-aid ranging from 35% to 75% of the eligible project cost subject to a maximum specified limit is provided to investors under the various schemes for undertaking infrastructure, logistic projects and setting up of food processing units in the country.
• There are seven component schemes under PMKSY, namely,

• • Mega Food Parks
  • Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure.
  • Infrastructure for APC
  • Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages
  • Creation/Expansion of Food Processing and Preservation Capacities.
  • Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure.
  • Human Resources and Institutions.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Conservation, Environmental Pollution and Degradation, Environmental Impact Assessment.

Q9: Which of the following organism(s) exhibit bioluminescence?

1. Algae
2. Bacteria
3. Worms

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Bioluminescence:

• It is the production and emission of light by a living organism.
• It is found in many marine organisms such as bacteria, algae, jellyfish, worms, crustaceans, sea stars, fish, and sharks.
• It is a form of chemiluminescence.
• In this, the principal chemical reaction involves some light-emitting molecule and an enzyme, generally called the luciferin and the luciferase, respectively.  The reaction takes place inside or outside the cell.

Hence, option D is correct.