GK Quiz | 28 August 2020

Q1. The Bureau of Police Research and Development comes under which Ministry?

1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Defence
3. Ministry of External Affairs
4. None of the above

Solution: A)

Explanation:

The Bureau of Police Research and Development is celebrating its Golden Jubilee Anniversary on 28 August 2020.

About Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D):

• It was established on 28 August 1970, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, with a mandate to promote excellence in policing, promote speedy and systematic study of police problems, apply science and technology in the method and techniques by the Police.
• It was initially started with two Divisions, namely Research, Publication & Statistics Division and Development Division.
• In 1973, on the recommendation of the Gore Committee on Police Training, the Training Division was added.
• In 1995, to study the issues of Prisons and Prison Reforms, Correctional Division was started.
• The National Police Mission was added, and Development Division was restructured as Modernization Division in 2008.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog:

1. It is an advisory think tank.
2. The President of India serves as its chairman.
3. It follows a ‘top-down’ approach to Planning.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):

• It is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established on 1^st January 2015. The Planning Commission was replaced with this institution.
• It focuses on the ‘Bottom –Up’ approach to envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.
• Composition:
• Prime Minister of India serves as its Chairperson.
• Governing Council comprises of the Chief Ministers of all the States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
• Regional Councils comprised of Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors and chaired by Prime Minister or his nominee.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3. Which of the following is/are the key pillars used by Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2020 to rank states?

1. Policy
2. Business Ecosystem
3. Export Performance

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

The NITI Aayog, in partnership with the Institute of Competitiveness, has recently released the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) report 2020.

About Export Preparedness Index (EPI):

• It aims to enhance the effectiveness of government policies, identify challenges and opportunities and encourage a facilitative regulatory framework for export.
• It includes the following four pillars:
• Policy
• Business Ecosystem
• Export Ecosystem
• Export Performance
• It also includes 11 sub-pillars - export promotion policy; institutional framework; business environment; infrastructure; transport connectivity; access to finance; export infrastructure; trade support; R&D infrastructure; export diversification; and growth orientation.
• Performance:
• Gujarat has topped the overall EPI 2020, followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
• Delhi has performed the best across Union Territories.
• Among the Himalayan states, Uttarakhand topped the index, followed by Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.
• Among the landlocked states, Rajasthan has topped the index, followed by Telangana and Haryana.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q4. The activities of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) include:

1. Exploration and excavation of archaeological sites
2. Conservation and maintenance of protected monuments
3. Surveys of antiquarian remains

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Archaeological Survey of India (ASI):

• It is a premier organization attached to the Ministry of Culture, founded in 1861.
• Its activities include exploration and excavation of archaeological sites, carrying out surveys of antiquarian remains, conservation and maintenance of protected monuments, archaeological research etc.
• Alexander Cunningham, also known as the “Father of Indian Archaeology”, was the first Director-General of ASI.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q5. With reference to the Public Financial Management System (PFMS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a web-based online software application developed and implemented by NITI Ayog.
2. Its primary aim is to facilitate sound Public Financial Management System for the Government of India (GoI) by establishing an efficient fund flow system as well as a payment cum accounting network.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About the Public Financial Management System (PFMS):

• Earlier, it was known as Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS).
• It is a web-based online software application developed and implemented by the Office of Controller General of Accounts (CGA), Ministry of Finance.
• It was initially started during 2009 as a Central Sector Scheme of Planning Commission.
• It was started with the objective of tracking funds released under all Plan schemes of GoI, and real-time reporting of expenditure at all levels of Programme implementation.
• Its scope was enlarged in 2013 to cover direct payment to beneficiaries under both Plan and non-Plan Schemes.
• In late 2014, it has been envisaged that digitization of accounts shall be achieved through PFMS.
• Its primary aim is to facilitate sound Public Financial Management System for Government of India (GoI) by establishing an efficient fund flow system as well as a payment cum accounting network.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q6. With reference to GST Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
3. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About GST Council:

• It was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
• It is a constitutional body under Article 279A.
• It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
• It is considered as a federal body where both the centre and the states get due representation.
• Composition:
• Chairperson: Union Finance Minister
• Other members include Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
• Every decision of the GST Council needs a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
• Voting strength:
• Centre: 1/3 vote in council
• States: 2/3 vote in council

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q7. According to the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, it is mandatory for the government to place which of the following in Parliament annually?

1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
2. Macroeconomic Framework Statement
3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act:

• FRMB Act was enacted in August 2003.
• It envisages setting of limits on the Central government’s debt and deficits and limited the fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP.
• Objectives:
• to make the Central government responsible for ensuring inter-generational equity in fiscal management and long-term macro-economic stability.
• to introduce more equitable distribution of India’s debt over the years.
• to introduce transparency in India’s fiscal management systems.
• to achieve fiscal stability and to give the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) flexibility to deal with inflation in India.
• It made it mandatory for the government to place the following along with the Union Budget documents in Parliament annually:
• Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
• Macroeconomic Framework Statement
• Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q8. Which of the following is/are the goals and objectives of the draft Defence Production and Export Promotion Policy 2020 (DPEPP 2020)?

1. To achieve a turnover of Rs. 1,75,000 crore in Aerospace and Defence goods and services by 2030.
2. To double the procurement from the domestic industry from the current Rs. 70,000 crore to Rs. 1,40,000 crore by 2025.
3. To reduce dependence on imports and take forward “Make in India” initiatives.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 1 and 3 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

About draft Defence Production and Export Promotion Policy 2020 (DPEPP 2020):

• It is envisaged as overarching guiding document of the Ministry of Defence to provide a focused, structured and significant thrust to defence production capabilities of the country for self-reliance and exports.
• Goals and objectives:
• To achieve a turnover of Rs 1,75,000 Crores (US$ 25Bn) including export of Rs 35,000 Crore (US$ 5 Billion) in Aerospace and Defence goods and services by 2025.
• To reduce dependence on imports and take forward “Make in India” initiatives through domestic design and development.
• To develop a dynamic, robust and competitive Defence industry, including Aerospace and Naval Shipbuilding industry to cater to the needs of Armed forces with quality products.
• To promote the export of defence products and become part of the global defence value chains.
• To double the procurement from domestic industry from the current Rs. 70,000 crore to Rs. 1,40,000 crore by 2025.
• To create an environment that encourages R&D, rewards innovation, creates Indian IP ownership and promotes a robust and self-reliant defence industry.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):

1. It is a statutory body.
2. It formulates the standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)

• It is a statutory body formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Bill, 2020.
• It co-ordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO).
• Functions:
• Registration of civil aircraft.
• Certification of airports.
• Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose.
• Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft and aircraft components by acting as a catalytic agent.
• Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft.

So, both statements are correct. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q10. Which of the following countries shares its border with Syria?

1. Iran
2. Israel
3. Saudi Arabia
4. Jordan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

About Syria:

• It is a country in Western Asia.
• It borders the Mediterranean Sea to the west, Iraq to the east, Turkey to the north, Jordan to the south, Lebanon and Israel to the southwest.

Hence, option B is correct.