GK Quiz | 28 July 2020

Q1. Which of the following state(s) has/have more than 50% reservation?

1. Maharashtra
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Telangana
5. Haryana
6. Uttar Pradesh

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. 1,2,4 and 5 only
2. 2,3 and 4 only
3. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
4. 3,4 and 5 only

Solution: A)

Explanation: Recently, Madras High Court directed central government to form panel in providing reservation for OBCs under All India Quota in state-run colleges.

Currently, following are four states which have more than 50% reservation:

• Maharashtra (total reservation in the state is 64-65%)
• Tamil Nadu (total reservation is 69%)
• Telangana (total reservation is 62%)
• Haryana (total reservation is 67%)

Both Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka has up to 50% reservation.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. The expression ‘contempt of court’ is clearly defined by the Constitution.
2. Any act which may result in scandalizing the court by lowering its authority is criminal contempt.
3. State High Courts do not have the power to punish for contempt of court.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Recently, proceedings for criminal contempt of court against Prashant Bhushan has been initiated suo moto by the Supreme Court of India. He criticized the current CJI and role of some CJI in last six years in his tweet.  

About Contempt of court:

• The expression ‘contempt of court’ is not defined by the Constitution.
• Under Article 129, Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself. Under Article 215, every High Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself.
• Under the Contempt of Courts Act 1971, contempt is divided into civil and criminal contempt.
• Criminal contempt is any act which may result in interference in the due course of a judicial proceeding, scandalizing the court by lowering its authority and an obstruction in the administration of justice.
• Civil concept is willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
• The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to punish for contempt of court, either with fine up to Rs. 2,000 or with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with both.

So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Poisson's ratio:

1. It is a measure of the Poisson effect that describes the expansion or contraction of a material in directions perpendicular to the direction of loading.
2. A high Poisson’s ratio indicates that the material exhibits small elastic deformation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2:

About Poisson's ratio:

• It is a measure of the Poisson effect that describes the expansion or contraction of a material in directions perpendicular to the direction of loading.
• The value of Poisson's ratio is the negative of the ratio of transverse strain to axial strain.
• A high Poisson’s ratio indicates that the material exhibits large elastic deformation, even when exposed to small amounts of strain.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q4. Which of the following countries have demonstrated an anti-satellite capability?

1. India
2. Russia
3. China
4. USA

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2,3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: D)

Explanation: India, Russia, China and the USA are the four countries which have demonstrated an anti-satellite capability.

In 2019, India had successfully tested the Anti-satellite (A-SAT) System under Mission Shakti and becomes the fourth country to acquire the capability of space warfare. A-Sat system was developed by Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO).

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q5. Which of the following statement is /are incorrect?

1. New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) is a treaty between China and the United States of America.
2. Cosmos 2543 is a satellite of the United States of America.
3. India opposed the UN resolution on No first placement of weapons in outer space.
4. All of the above

Solution: D)

Explanation:

New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the United States of America. It entered into force on 5 February, 2011 and will lapse in February 2021, if not extended further. It is a successor to the START framework of 1991.

The USA and the UK have accused Russia of test-firing a space-based anti-satellite weapon. This test consisted of Cosmos 2543 (Russia’s satellite). The satellite operated in abnormally close proximity to a USA government satellite in low-earth orbit (LEO) before it manoeuvred away and over to another Russian satellite.

On 2 December 2014, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution entitled “No First Placement of Weapons in Outer Space”. India has supported this resolution.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements about Governor:

1. He is the constitutional head of the state.
2. The Governor has no discretionary powers in summoning a session of the Assembly.
3. He is bound to act according to the aid and advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3:  Recently, Anandiben Patel has been given additional charge of the Madhya Pradesh after the demise of Lalji Tandon. Currently, she is the Governor of Uttar Pradesh.

About Governor:

• Article 153 to Article 162 (Part IV) of the Indian Constitution deals with Governor’s appointment, his powers and the office of Governor.
• He is the constitutional head of the state and bound to act according to the aid and advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
• He acts as a bridge between union and state governments.
• Condition of Governor’s office:
• He should not hold any other office of profit.
• He should not be a member of the either house of the state legislature or house of the parliament.
• He must be a citizen of India.
• He should be at least 35 years of age.
• In the Nabam Rebia v/s Deputy Speaker judgement (2016), Supreme Court held that the governor’s power to summon, prorogue and dissolve the House should be only on the advice of the council of ministers. Thus, the Governor has no discretionary powers in summoning a session of the Assembly.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements about Rafale aircraft:

1. It is a multirole combat aircraft designed by French company Dassault Aviation.
2. It required liquid oxygen re-filling for oxygen production as it does not have any onboard oxygen generation system.
3. It is almost entirely built by Russia.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, a batch of five Rafale fighter jets will reach the Ambala air base in Haryana.

 About Rafale:

• It is a canard-delta wing, twin engine, multirole combat aircraft designed and built by French company Dassault Aviation, introduced in 2001.
• The aircraft is fitted with an onboard oxygen generation system (OBOGS) which suppresses the need ground support for oxygen production or liquid oxygen re-filling.
• It is capable of carrying out reconnaissance, close air support dynamic targeting, buddy-buddy refueling, air-superiority, air-to-ground precision strike, nuclear deterrence and anti-ship attacks.
• It is almost entirely built by France, involving most of its major defence contractors, such as Dassault, Safran and Thales.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8. Consider the following pairs:

(Tiger Reserve)	(State)
Nagarjunasagar Srisailam	Tamil Nadu
Pench Tiger Reserve	Madhya Pradesh
Sariska Tiger Reserve	Maharashtra
Pakke Tiger Reserve	Arunachal Pradesh

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

In the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR), the number of tigers has gone up. It is the largest tiger reserve in India, founded in 1983. It spreads over five districts (Kurnool, Guntur, Prakasam, Mahbubnagar, Nalgonda) in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Its basin is cut by the Krishna River.

Pench Tiger Reserve is the first one to straddle across two states (Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra), established in 1977.

Sariska Tiger Reserve is a tiger reserve in Alwar district of Rajasthan (India), established in 1955.

Pakke Tiger Reserve is a tiger reserve in the Pakke Kessang district of Arunachal Pradesh (India), established in 1966.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q9. With reference to the Personal Data Protection Bill, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for an independent regulator Data Protection Agency (DPA).
2. It gives the right to be forgotten which allows an individual to remove consent for data collection and disclosure.
3. As per the Section 35 of the law “all or any provisions of this Act shall not apply to any agency of the government”.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3: Recently, members from both opposition and BJP opposed certain sections of the Data Protection Bill 2019 at a meeting of the Joint Committee on the Bill.

About Personal Data Protection Bill:

• It was introduced in Lok Sabha on December 11, 2019, seeks to establish a Data Protection Authority for the same, and provide for protection of personal data of individuals.
• Data can be anything from financial or biometric data, traits or attributes of identity, religion, caste or even political beliefs.
• To regulate data, the bill divided personal information into three types:
• General data: refers to non-critical and non-sensitive data and there is no limitation on where it is stored or managed.
• Sensitive data: It constitutes health data, official identifier, data related to passwords, financial data, religious or caste data, genetic data, biometric data and sexual orientation. It may be processed outside India with the explicit consent of the user.
• Critical data:  It must be stored and handled only in India, and will be characterized by the government every once in a while.

• A per the bill, data principal is the individual whose data is being stored and process. Data is collected and handled by entities called data fiduciaries.
• Each company will have a Data Protection Officer (DPO).
• It grants individuals the ability to access and transfer one’s own data, and the right to data portability.
• It provided for an independent regulator Data Protection Agency (DPA).
• It gives the right to be forgotten which allows an individual to remove consent for data collection and disclosure.
• As per the Section 35 of the law “in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order” all or any provisions of this Act shall not apply to any agency of the government.
• Section 36 of the law states “safeguards for an individual can also be suspended in the interests of prevention, detection, investigation and prosecution of any offence or any other contravention of any law for the time being in force”.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q10. With reference to the Special Window for Affordable and Mid Income Housing (SWAMIH) fund, consider the following statements:

1. It will be formed to complete construction of stalled housing projects.
2. The fund was set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund.
3. SBICAP Ventures is the Investment Manager of the Fund.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: The performance of SWAMIH was recently reviwed by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. The officials of the State Bank of India, SBI Capital Markets Limited and SBICAPS Ventures Limited (SVL) attended the review meeting.

About the Special Window for Affordable and Mid Income Housing (SWAMIH) fund:

• The Union Cabinet cleared a proposal to set up SWAMIH in 2019.
• It will be formed to complete construction of stalled housing projects.
• The fund was set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund registered with SEBI.
• SBICAP Ventures is the Investment Manager of the Fund.
• The Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India is the Sponsor of the Fund on behalf of the Government of India.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.