GK Quiz | 28 November 2020

TOPIC: GS 2 - Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries

Q1: Consider the following statements

1. The constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of decisions of President or governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.
2. The President of India does not have power of pardon in case where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial.
3. The US President’s power to pardon can be exercised in cases of impeachment.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3:  Recently, US President Donald Trump recently exercised his powers under the Constitution to pardon Michael Flynn, his former National Security Advisor, who had twice pleaded guilty to lying to the FBI.

About US president’s power to pardon:

• He has the constitutional right to pardon or commute sentences related to federal crimes. This is granted without limit and cannot be restricted by Congress.
• This power only applies to federal crimes and not state crimes, and cannot be exercised in cases of impeachment.
• Clemency is a broad executive power, and is discretionary- meaning the President is not answerable for his pardons, and does not have to provide a reason for issuing one.

About Indian President:

• Under article 72 of the Indian Constitution, he shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. The president exercised the power of pardon on the advice of Council of Ministers. He exercise these powers in all cases -

• • where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial,
  • where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends,
  • where the sentence is a sentence of death
  • The constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of decisions of President or governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act.

Q2: For simultaneous elections to be implemented, in which of the following act(s) changes to be made?

1. Article 83
2. Article 85
3. Article 172

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Recently, at the recently held 80^th All India Presiding Officers Conference, PM again pitched for ‘One Nation, One Election’. One Nation, One Election refers to holding elections to Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, Panchayats and Urban local bodies simultaneously, once in five year.

For simultaneous elections to be implemented, changes to be made in the following:

• Article 83, which deals with the duration of Houses of Parliament need an amendment.
• Article 85, deals with the dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president)
• Article 172, relating to the duration of state legislatures

To build in provisions for stability of tenure for both parliament and assemblies, the Representation of People Act, 1951 Act would have to be amended. This should include the following crucial elements:

• Restructuring the powers and functions of the ECI to facilitate procedures required for simultaneous elections
• A definition of simultaneous election can be added to section 2 of the 1951 act.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Conservation related issues.

Q3: Consider the following statements

1. India’s renewable power capacity is the second largest in the world.
2. Currently, the renewable energy capacity in India is about 50% of the total capacity.
3. The Government of India has set a target of installing 100 GW of renewable energy capacity by the year 2022.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Recently, PM has inaugurated 3^rd Global Renewable Energy Investment Meeting and Expo (RE-Invest 2020). The summit is organized by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and the theme for 2020 is ‘Innovations for Sustainable Energy Transition’.

About renewable power capacity of India:

• The Government of India has set a target of installing 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the year 2022, which includes 100 GW from solar, 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from bio-power and 5 GW from small hydro-power.
• India’s renewable power capacity is the fourth largest in the world.
• Currently, the renewable energy capacity in India is 136 Giga Watts, which is about 36% of our total capacity.
• In the last 6 years, India has increased installed renewable energy capacity by two and half times.
• The annual renewable energy capacity addition of India has been exceeding that of coal based thermal power since 2017.

So, all statements are incorrect and hence, option D is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment

Q4: With reference to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), consider the following statements

1. It was set up in 2015 as a Category- II Alternate Investment Fund.
2. The Indian government has a 51% stake in this fund with the rest held by foreign and domestic investors.
3. It is a government-backed entity established to provide long-term capital to the country’s infrastructure sector.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):

• It was set up in 2015 as a Category- II Alternate Investment Fund.
• It is a government-backed entity established to provide long-term capital to the country’s infrastructure sector.
• The Indian government has a 49% stake in NIIF with the rest held by foreign and domestic investors.
• It manages three funds each with its distinctive investment mandate. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

So, statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Conservation

 Q5: Consider the following pairs:         

	Tiger Reserves	States
1	Pilibhit Tiger Reserve	Uttar Pradesh
2	Satkosia Tiger Reserve	Jharkhand
3	Pakke Tiger Reserve	Gujarat

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Recently, the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve has bagged international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years.

Pilibhit Tiger Reserve: It is situated in Pilibhit district, Lakhimpur Kheri District and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh. Its southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra, while the northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border. It was declared in September 2008 on the basis of its special type of ecosystem with vast open spaces and sufficient feed for the elegant predators.

Satkosia Tiger Reserve: It is located in the Angul district of Odisha, India. It comprises of two adjoining Sanctuaries of central Odisha named as Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary

Pakke Tiger Reserve: It is a Project Tiger reserve in the Pakke Kessang district of Arunachal Pradesh, India. It is also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve. It falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment

Q6: Consider the following statements about Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN)

1. It is a 5 digits alphanumeric number.
2. Its purpose is to curb fake certifications by non-Chartered Accountants misrepresenting themselves as Chartered Accountants.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both  1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2: Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) is an 18 digits system generated unique number which shall generate separately for each document. It is a unique number given to documents attested by Chartered Accountants in Practice. Its purpose is to curb fake certifications by non-Chartered Accountants misrepresenting themselves as Chartered Accountants.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Constitution

Q7: Consider the following statements about Autonomous District Councils (ADCs)

1. These are institutions of local governance created under 11^th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
2. Each Autonomous District Council consists of not more than 30 members.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:  A)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2: About Autonomous District Councils (ADCs):

• These are institutions of local governance created under 6^th Schedule of Indian Constitution.
• Sixth schedule consists of provisions for administration of tribal areas in four states namely, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. There are 10 areas – 3 in Assam, Mizoram and Meghalaya each and one in Tripura that are registered as autonomous districts.
• Constitution of District and Regional Councils:

• • There shall be a District Council for each autonomous district consisting of not more than thirty members, of whom not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor and the rest shall be elected on the basis of adult suffrage. There shall be a separate Regional Council for each area constituted an autonomous region.
  • Each District and Regional Council shall be a body corporate by the name respectively of the District Council of (name of district) and the Regional Council of (name of region), shall have perpetual succession and a common seal and shall by the said name sue and be sued.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option A is correct.