GK Quiz | 30 November 2020

TOPIC: GS 2 - Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.

Q1: Consider the following statements

1. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52^nd Amendment Act.
2. The anti-defection law applies only to Parliament.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2: India’s first Member of Parliament to have been disqualified from the Lok Sabha has now been disqualified as an MLA in Mizoram. Mizoram Assembly Speaker disqualifies Zoram People’s Movement MLA Lalduhoma.

About the anti-defection law:

• It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
• It applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
• It is provided in the Tenth Schedule which was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52^nd Amendment Act.
• A member of a house belonging to a political party can be disqualified on grounds of defection:

• • If an independent candidate joins a political party after the election.
  • If a nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature.
  • If he voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party.
  • If he votes contrary to the directions of his political party or does not vote in the legislature. In this case, the member shall not be disqualified if the member has taken prior permission, or is condoned by the party within 15 days from such voting or abstention.
• The Anti-defection law allows for a party to merge into another party if at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. Earlier a merger refers to a defection by one-third of the elected members of a political party but it was changed to at least two-thirds by 91^st Constitution Amendment Act-2003.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Important International institutions, agencies and fora, their structure, mandate.

Q2: Consider the following statements with reference to ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM Plus)

1. The first ADMM-Plus was convened at Ha Noi, Vietnam in 2010.
2. India is a member of ADMM-Plus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both  1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2: Recently, Vietnam has invited India for ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM Plus) being hosted by Vietnam in December 2020.

About ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM Plus):

• It is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners, viz. Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the USA.
• Consistent with the ADMM guiding principles of open and outward looking, the 2^nd ADMM in Singapore in 2007 adopted the Concept Paper to establish the ADMM-Plus.
• The first ADMM-Plus was convened at Ha Noi, Vietnam in 2010.

So, both statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment.

Q3: Consider the following statements regarding fiscal deficit

1. It is the reflective of the total borrowing requirements of Government.
2. A very high fiscal deficit implies that there is a lesser amount of money left in the market for private entrepreneurs and businesses to borrow.
3. A high fiscal deficit and higher interest rates would mean that the efforts of the Reserve Bank of India to reduce interest rates are undone.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: The Union Government’s fiscal deficit further widened to Rs 9.53 lakh crore, or close to 120% of the annual budget estimate, at the end of October of the current fiscal.

About Fiscal Deficit:

• It is the difference between the Revenue Receipts plus Non-debt Capital Receipts (NDCR) and the total expenditure.
• It is “reflective of the total borrowing requirements of Government”.
• High fiscal deficit’s impact:

• • If the fiscal deficit ratio is too high, it implies that there is a lesser amount of money left in the market for private entrepreneurs and businesses to borrow. Lesser amount of this money, in turn, leads to higher rates of interest charged on such lending.
  • A high fiscal deficit and higher interest rates would also mean that the efforts of the Reserve Bank of India to reduce interest rates are undone.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option C is correct.

 

TOPIC:  GS 2 - Health

Q4: Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 provides the regulations for -

1. The removal of human organs and its storage.
2. The transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes
3. The prevention of commercial dealings in human organs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994:

• It was passed in 1994 and subsequently amended in 2011 thus bringing in form Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011.
• It provides various regulations for the removal of human organs and its storage.
• It also regulates the transplantation of human organs for the prevention of commercial dealings in human organs and for therapeutic purposes.
• It recognizes brain death identified as a form of the death process and defines criteria for brain death.
• It provides regulatory and advisory bodies for monitoring transplantation activity, and for maintenance of a registry of donors and recipients of human organs and tissues.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Bio-diversity, Environment

Q5: Consider the following statements about Peatlands

1. They are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
2. They occur only in Asia.
3. They are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: About Peatlands:

• They are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
• They occur in almost every country on Earth.
• They are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
• They are critical for preserving global biodiversity, provide safe drinking water, minimize flood risk and help address climate change.
• Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions.
• They are generally found in permafrost regions towards poles and at high altitudes, in coastal areas, beneath tropical rainforest and in boreal forests.

So, statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Issues of buffer stocks and food security.

Q6: With reference to the State of Food and Agriculture 2020 Report, consider the following statements

1. It is released by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
2. As per the report, available freshwater resources have declined globally by more than 20% per person over the past two decades.
3. Agriculture accounts for 50% of the world’s freshwater withdrawals.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: Food and Agriculture Organization’s report “The State of Food and Agriculture 2020” presents new estimates on the pervasiveness of water scarcity in irrigated agriculture and of water shortages in rainfed agriculture, as well as on the number of people affected.

Key Highlights:

• Agriculture accounts for 70% of the world’s freshwater withdrawals.
• Achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) pledges, including the zero hunger, is still achievable,  but only by ensuring more productive and sustainable use of freshwater and rainwater in agriculture.
• Available freshwater resources have declined globally by more than 20% per person over the past two decades. About 1.2 billion people globally experienced very high levels of water stress.

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

              

TOPIC: GS 1 - Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity of India, social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism.

Q7: Consider the following statements about Lingayats

1. They are followers of 12^th-century social reformer Basavanna
2. They are strict monotheists.
3. The Shiva that Basavanna referred to in his vachanas (verses) is the Hindu god Shiva

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: Recently, Karnataka government has deferred plan to provide OBC status to Lingayat community in the Central OBC List.

About Lingayats:

• They are followers of 12^th-century social reformer Basavanna and his vachana (verses) philosophy. Basavanna was against the caste system and Vedic rituals. 
• The Shiva that Basavanna referred to in his vachanas (verses) is not the Hindu god Shiva. Lingayat enjoin the worship of only one God, namely, Linga (Shiva).
• They are strict monotheists.

Veerashaivas are a sub-sect of Lingayats and ardent followers of Lord Shiva. Veerashaivas do not worship any god other than Shiva. They preceded Basavanna, and can be found spread across Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Veerashaivism has its roots in the Vedas and Agamas.

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Technology

Q8: Consider the following statements with reference to the Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOSP) test

1. It is a neuro-psychological method of interrogation.
2. In this test, a person might be able to control their pulse rate and BP even in times of distress.
3. It involves a question-answer session with the accused.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: All accused in Hathras Case will undergo Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOSP) test.

About BEOSP test, also known as brain fingerprinting:

• It is a neuro-psychological method of interrogation in which the accuser’s participation in the crime is investigated by studying their brain’s response.
• It is carried out via a process known as an electroencephalogram, conducted to study the electrical behaviour of the human brain.
• It does not involve a question-answer session with the accused and is rather a neuro psychological study of their brain.
• In a polygraph test, the accused person’s physiological indicators are taken into account which includes blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin conductivity, while, in BEOSP test, a person might be able to control their pulse rate and BP even in times of distress.
• Under this test, the consent of the accused is first taken and they are then made to wear caps with dozens of electrodes attached to them. The accused are then shown visuals or played audio clips related to the crime to check if there is any triggering of neurons in their brains which then generate brainwaves.
• According to the 2010 Supreme Court judgment in the Selvi v. State of Karnataka case, narco analysis, polygraph and brain mapping tests cannot be forced upon any individual without their consent and the test results cannot be admitted solely as evidence.

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option D is correct.