GK Quiz | 8 August 2020

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Sir Creek:

1. It is a strip of water disputed between India and China.
2. It opens up in the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Sir Creek was originally known as Ban Ganga is a 96-km (60-mi) trip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands. It flows into the Arabian Sea and roughly divides the Gujarat State of India from the Sindh Province of Pakistan.

So, both statements are incorrect and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q2. Sections 499 and 500 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) are related to-

1. Defamation
2. Offences relating to Documents and Property Marks
3. Criminal Breach of Contracts of Service
4. Criminal Intimidation

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Defamation is the communication of a false statement that harms the reputation of an individual person, group, business, product, government, religion, or nation. In India, defamation can both be a criminal offence and a civil wrong.

Section 499 of IPC:

• Under section 499 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Criminal defamation has been specifically defined as an offence
• It states defamation could be through words, spoken or intended to be read, through signs, and also through visible representations.
• Exceptions under section 499 include imputation of truth which is required for the public good and thus has to be published, on the public conduct of government officials, the conduct of any person touching any public question and merits of the public performance.

Section 500 of IPC is on punishment for defamation, reads, “Whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.”

 Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3. The Indian state of Tripura shares its border with-

1. Meghalaya
2. Assam
3. Mizoram
4. Manipur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Tripura is a third-smallest state in India. It is a state in northeastern India. It is bordered by the Indian states of Assam and Mizoram to the east, and Bangladesh to the west, north and south.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements about Fluorosis:

1. It is a disease resulting from deposition of fluorides in the hard and soft tissues of body.
2. According to World Health organization (WHO), the fluoride concentration in drinking water should not exceed 1.5mg/l.
3. It is caused by excessive intake of fluoride greater than 1 ppm.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: About Fluorosis:

• It is a disease resulting from deposition of fluorides in the hard and soft tissues of body.
• It is caused due to excess intake of fluoride through food product, drinking water, industrial pollutants over a long period.
• It is caused by excessive intake of fluoride greater than 1 P.P.M.
• According to World Health organization (WHO), the fluoride concentration in drinking water should not exceed 1.5mg/l.
• It results in
• Dental Fluorosis: it occurs due to an excess intake of fluoride during tooth formation.
• Skeletal fluorosis: it occurs when fluoride accumulates in the bone progressively over many years.
• Non-skeletal fluorosis (NSF): these are earlier manifestations which develop long before the onset of typical changes in skeletal bones and teeth.

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements about Ammonium nitrate:

1. It is mainly used as a high-nitrogen fertilizer in agriculture.
2. It is found as the natural mineral gwihabaite in the driest regions of the Atacama Desert in Chile.
3. In India, its usage is regulated as per the Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012, under the Explosives Act, 1884.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: About Ammonium nitrate:

• It is a white, crystalline chemical which is highly soluble in water.
• Uses:
• It is used in agriculture as a high-nitrogen fertilizer.
• It is used as a component of explosive mixtures used in quarrying, civil construction and mining.
• It is the major constituent of ANFO which is a popular industrial explosive.
• It is found as the natural mineral gwihabaite in the driest regions of the Atacama Desert in Chile.
• Pure ammonium nitrate is not an explosive on its own but it can be very explosive when mixed with ingredients like fuel or some other contaminants.
• It is classified as an oxidiser (Grade 5.1) under the United Nations classification of dangerous goods.

So, all statements are correct. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q6. With reference to the 103^rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019), consider the following statements:

1. Under the act, only centre can provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of society.
2. It inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6).
3. It introduces 20% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) for admissions in education institutes and in jobs.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About 103^rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019):

• By amending article 15 and 16, it introduces 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) for admissions in education institutes and in jobs.
• Article 15: Prohibits discrimination of Indians on basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
• Persons who are not covered by the 50% reservation policy for SCs, STs and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) are eligible for reservation under this quota.
• It inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6).
• Under the act, both Centre and the states can provide reservation to the EWS of society.

So, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC):

1. It is a statutory Corporation under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. Its aim is to plan and promote programmes for foodstuffs, agricultural produce, industrial goods and livestock.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC)

• It was founded on 3^rd March 1963 as a statutory Corporation under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
• It is headquartered at New Delhi.
• Its aim is to plan and promote programmes for foodstuffs, agricultural produce, industrial goods and livestock.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8. India Meteorological Department is an agency of the-

1. Ministry of Science and Technology
2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
3. Ministry of Earth Sciences
4. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Solution: C)

Explanation:

About India Meteorological Department:

• It was founded in 1875.
• It is an agency of the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India.
• IMD is also one of the six Regional Specialised Meteorological Centres of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
• It is headquartered in Delhi and has regional offices at Mumbai, Kolkata, Nagpur and Pune.
• It is the principal agency responsible for weather forecasting, seismology and meteorological observations.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to Cooperatives in India:

1. They function as an association of small and marginal farmers and rural poor.
2. Article 43B of the Indian constitution provides for the promotion of co-operative societies.
3. A citizen has the fundamental right to form cooperatives.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Cooperatives in India

• They function as an association of small and marginal farmers and rural poor.
• A new Part IXB right was added through Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011, regarding the cooperatives working in India
• In Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution, the word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations”. This makes Right to form cooperatives a fundamental right.
• Article 43B under part IV of the Constitution was inserted, which states that the state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies".

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Monetary policy:

1. It is the process by which the Central Government controls the supply of money.
2. RBI reviews its monetary policy every two months.
3. In India, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central monetary authority.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Monetary Policy is the process by which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) controls interest rates, inflation, credit availability and supply of money. RBI reviews its monetary policy every two months.

Cash Reserve Ratio, Statutory Liquidity Ratio, Bank Rate, Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and Open Market Operations are main instruments of the monetary policy. In India, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central monetary authority.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He is responsible only to the President.
3. He has the power of both Comptroller as well as Auditor General.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3 only
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

• Under Article 148, the constitution of India provides for an independent office of the CAG.
• He is the head of the Indian audit & account department.
• He is appointed by the President of India.
• He can be removed by the President in the same manner and on same grounds as a judge of Supreme Court.
• He is responsible only to the Parliament.
• CAG of India only fulfilled the role of an Auditor General and not of a Comptroller while in Britain it has the power of both Comptroller as well as Auditor General.
• CAG of India is not a member of the parliament while in Britain, CAG is a member of house of the Commons.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements about Pangolin:

1. Pangolins are found only in Asia and Africa.
2. Indian Pangolin is found only in high Himalayas and the Northeast India.
3. Chinese Pangolin is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Pangolin

• There are eight species of pangolin found on two continents- Asia and Africa. Out of these eight spices, the Indian Pangolin and the Chinese Pangolin are found in India.
• Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except high Himalayas, the arid region and the North-East. It is also found in Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• Chinese Pangolin is found in the Himalayan foothills in Bhutan, Eastern Nepal, Northern India, North-East Bangladesh and through Southern China. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• Both Indian Pangolin and Chinese Pangolin are listed under Schedule I, Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• The four species live in Africa are-
• Black-bellied pangolin (Phataginus tetradactyla),
• Giant Ground pangolin (Smutsia gigantea),
• White-bellied pangolin (Phataginus tricuspis), and
• Temminck's Ground pangolin (Smutsia temminckii).
• The four species found in Asia are-
• Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata),
• Chinese pangolin (Manis pentadactyla),
• Philippine pangolin (Manis culionensis), and
• Sunda pangolin (Manis javanica).

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

1. At present, India serves as the UNSC’s permanent member.
2. To be approved as a non-permanent member of the council, a country needs to secure the votes of one-thirds of the members present and voting at the General Assembly session.
3. Ten non-permanent members of UNSC are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for two-year terms.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

• It is one of the organs of the United Nations and is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security.
• Its powers include the establishment of international sanctions, establishment of peacekeeping operations and the authorization of military action through Security Council resolutions.
• It is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to member states.
• The Security Council consists of fifteen members- 5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members.
• Five permanent members are- Russia, the United Kingdom, France, China, and the United States.
• 10 non-permanent members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly on a regional basis to serve two-year terms. Currently, India serves as a non-permanent member of the powerful UN Security Council.
• To be approved as a non-permanent member of the council, a country needs to secure the votes of two-thirds of the members present and voting at the General Assembly session.

So, statement 1 and 2 are incorrect and statement 3 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.