My id is: General Knowledge Quiz | 9 August 2020

GK Quiz 9 August 2020

2020-08-09 | 13 minutes

Q1. Consider the following statements about Abhanindranath Tagore:

  1. He was the first major supporter of swadeshi values in Indian art.
  2. He was the creator of ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’.
  3. He is known for his painting Bharat Mata.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 ad 3: About Abhanindranath Tagore:

  • He was the nephew of Rabindranath Tagore and the idea of Bengal School came up with his works.
  • He was the first major supporter of swadeshi values in Indian art.
  • To revive the ancient art traditions of India, he founded Indian Society of Oriental Art in Kolkata.
  • He tried to reduce the influence of western art style which stressed on materialism.

His famous paintings: Passing of Shah Jahan (1900), Bharat Mata (1905), Ganesh Janani (1908), Ashoka's Queen (1910), fairyland illustration (1913) and Poet's Baul-dance in Falgurni (1916).

So, all statements are correct. Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q2. Which of the statement is correct regarding Manhattan Project:

  1. It was a research and development undertaking during World War II.
  2. It aims to bring small payloads back to Earth or to the surface of Mars.
  3. It is the first Indian Solar Coronagraph spacecraft mission.
  4. It is a land-based mission with primary application in terrain mapping.

Solution: A)

Explanation:

US dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima (Japan) on 6th August 1945 and this was the world’s first atomic bomb attack. On 9 August 1945, US dropped another bomb on Nagasaki (Japan). This bombing marked the end of World War II with Japan surrendering to the Allies on 14th August 1945.

Manhattan project was the codename for America's atomic bomb development efforts during World War II that produced the first nuclear weapons. It was led by the United States with the support of the United Kingdom and Canada.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q3. Which of the following is/are an objective of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

  1. Non-proliferation
  2. Peaceful uses of nuclear energy
  3. Disarmament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons or Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT):

  • It is an international treaty, came into effect on 5th March 1970.
  • Objectives:
    • Non-proliferation i.e. to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology
    • To promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy
    • To further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament
  • It de-legitimizes ‘proliferation’ of nuclear weapons, fissile materials and related technology by the non-nuclear weapon states (NNWS) while, nuclear-weapon states (NWS) can continue to possess nuclear weapons.
  • Under the treaty, the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China are defined as nuclear-weapon states as they have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before 1st  January 1967.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q4. Which of the following countries have never joined the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

  1. South Sudan
  2. India
  3. North Korea
  4. Pakistan
  5. Israel
  6. Afghanistan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1,2 and 5 only
  2. 2,3,4 and 6 only
  3. 1,2,4 and 5 only
  4. 3,4,5, and 6 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

The four UN member states those have never been a party to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are-

  • India
  • Pakistan
  • Israel
  • South Sudan

North Korea acceded to the NPT in 1985, but withdrew in 2003. Afghanistan signed the treaty on 1st July 1968 and is a party to the NPT.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q5. Which of the following is a category of the Priority Sector Lending in India?

  1. Agriculture
  2. Export Credit
  3. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  4. Renewable Energy

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1,2, 3 and 4
  4. 2,3 and 4 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has assigned priority sector lending (PSL) status to India's startup sector.

Priority Sector Lending refers to those sectors which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Government of India consider important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors.

Following are eight broad categories of the Priority Sector Lending:

  • Agriculture
  • Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • Export Credit
  • Education
  • Housing
  • Social Infrastructure
  • Renewable Energy

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q6. A component, Innovation and Agri-entrepreneurship Development programme has been launched under-

  1. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
  2. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana
  3. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
  4. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

Solution: C)

Explanation:

To promote innovation and agripreneurship, a component, Innovation and Agri-entrepreneurship Development programme was launched under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana.

Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY):

  • The scheme was initiated in 2007. It incentivizes States to increase public investment in Agriculture & allied sectors.
  • Objectives:
    • Providing all the states with autonomy and flexibility in making plans as per their local needs
    • Empowering the youth through various skill development, innovation and agri-business models
  • The continuation of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) has been approved as Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana- Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR).

Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q7. Which of the following is/are the component of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana- Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR)?

  1. Seed Stage Funding of R-ABI Incubatees
  2. Agripreneurship Orientation
  3. Idea/Pre-Seed Stage Funding of Agripreneurs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana- Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR):

  • The continuation of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) has been approved as Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana- Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR) under the Ministry of Agriculture.
  • The expenditure is shared between centre and state in the ratio of 60: 40, 90:10 for North Eastern States and Himalayan States and 100% grant for UTs.
  • Components:
    • Seed Stage Funding of R-ABI Incubatees – Funding upto Rs. 25 lakhs (85% grant & 15% contribution from the incubatee).
    • Agripreneurship Orientation - 2 months duration with a monthly stipend of Rs.  10,000/- per month.  Mentorship is provided on technical, financial, IP issues etc.
    • Idea/Pre-Seed Stage Funding of Agripreneurs – Funding up to Rs. 5 lakhs (90% grant and 10% contribution from the incubatee)

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q8. With reference to the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC), consider the following statements:

  1. It was established in 1960 as a body with functional autonomy within UNESCO.
  2. It is the only specialized in ocean science and services within the UN system.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC):

  • It was established in 1960, by resolution 2.31 adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO.
  • It is headquartered in Paris, France.
  • It is the only specialized in ocean science and services within the UN system.
  • It is recognized through the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) as the competent international organization in the fields of Transfer of Marine Technology and Marine Scientific Research.

So, both statements are correct. Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q9. Tsunami Ready, recently seen in news, was initiated by-

  1. The Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC)
  2. Green Peace
  3. International Maritime Organization
  4. UN Division for Ocean Affairs and the Law of the Sea (UNDOALOS)

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Tsunami Ready:

  • It is a community performance-based programme.
  • It was initiated by Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO to promote preparedness through active collaboration of community leaders, public, national and local emergency management agencies.
  • It aims to minimize the loss of life and property, to improve coastal community's preparedness for tsunami emergencies and to ensure a structural and systematic approach in building community preparedness.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following pairs:

National Parks

State

1. Eravikulam National Park           

Kerala

2. Pench National Park

Madhya Pradesh

3. Mathikettan Shola National Park

Andhra Pradesh

 

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Eravikulam National Park is a national park located along the Western Ghats in the Idukki district of Kerala in India. It is the first national park in Kerala. Anamudi, the highest peak in the Western Ghats and South India, is inside this park.

Pench National Park is a national park located in Madhya Pradesh (India). Pench River flows through the park from north to south dividing the park into almost equal eastern and western halves. It includes Pench Tiger Reserve.

Mathikettan Shola National Park is a national park in Idukki district of Kerala(India).

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding tabletop runways:

  1. These are located on the top of a plateau or hill.
  2. This type of runway creates an optical illusion.
  3. These runways are considered safe.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 3 only

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Recently, Air India flight skids off Calicat airport runway (a tabletop runway).

Tabletop runways are located on the top of a plateau or hill and generally constructed by chopping off the top of a hill. This type of runway is considered risky as this creates an optical illusion of being at the same level as the plains below.

In India, following airports are built on tabletop:

  • Kozhikode airport, Kerala
  • Mangaluru International Airport, Karnataka
  • Pakyong airport in Sikkim
  • Lengpui airport in Mizoram
  • Airports at Simla and Kullu in Himachal Pradesh

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q12. National Institute of Disaster Management comes under which ministry?

  1. Ministry of Earth Sciences
  2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  3. Ministry of Science and Technology
  4. Ministry of Home Affairs

Solution: D)

Explanation:

National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) was constituted under an Act of Parliament in 1995. It is a premier institute for training and capacity development programs for managing natural disasters in India. It comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs and its motto is Resilient India- Disaster free India.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q13. Which of the following is/are the anthropogenic causes of Landslides?

  1. Earthquakes
  2. Rampant deforestation
  3. Volcanic eruptions
  4. Urbanization
  5. Loose soil cover

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 2 and 4 only
  2. 1,3,4 and 5 only
  3. 2,4 and 5 only
  4. 1,3 and 5 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

About Landslide:

  • Sudden movement of rock, debris or earth along the slope is known as Landslide.
  • It refers to several forms of mass wasting.
  • Gravity acts as a primary driving force for a landslide to occur.
  • Landslides occur in a variety of environments, from mountain ranges to coastal cliffs or even underwater, characterized by either steep or gentle slope gradients.
  • Natural causes:
    • Natural calamities like earthquake, floods, cloudburst, volcanic eruptions, etc.
    • Loose soil cover and sloping terrain
    • Heavy rainfall
  • Anthropogenic causes:
    • Mining activities
    • Rampant deforestation
    • Changes in land use patterns
    • Rapid urbanization
    • Increased industrialization

Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q14. TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a joint program of-

  1. World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF)
  2. Birdlife International
  3. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
  4. Greenpeace

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 2 and 4 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

About TRAFFIC:

  • TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, was established in 1976.
  • It is joint program of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  • It is the leading non-governmental organization working globally on the trade of wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity and sustainable development.
  • It is headquartered in Cambridge, United Kingdom
  • Its objective is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Hence, option B is correct.