My id is: General Knowledge Quiz | 9 October 2020

GK Quiz 9 October 2020

2020-10-09 | 13 minutes

Q1. Consider the following pairs

             Tribes                              States

  1. Bodo Tribe                        Andhra Pradesh
  2. Angami Tribe                    Nagaland
  3. Bhutia Tribe                      Uttar Pradesh

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation: Bodos are the single largest tribal community in Assam. They are concentrated in the northern areas of the Brahmaputra River valley. Most of them are settled farmers, though they formerly practiced shifting cultivation.

Bhutias inhabited the northern part of Sikkim. They are from Tibetan origin and migrated to Sikkim in the 16th Century. They speak Lhopo or Sikkimese, a Tibetan dialect. They are spread out over sikkim, Bhutan, and Nepal and districts of Kalimpong and Darjeeling in India. They are the followers of Vajrayana Buddhism, mainly the Nyingma and Kagyu schools. Losar and Losoong are the main festivals observed by them. Their traditional house is known as a "khim" and is usually rectangular.

Angami Tribes are a major Naga ethnic group native to the state of Nagaland, India. They are hill people depending basically on cultivation and livestock-rearing and are known for terraced wet-rice cultivation. More than 98% of the Angamis are Christians.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

 Q2. Arrange the following districts, frequently seen in news, in order from west to east?

  1. Kokrajhar
  2. Baksa
  3. Udalguri
  4. Chirang

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1,4,2,3
  2. 1,3,2,4
  3. 3,2,1,4
  4. 4,3,1,2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Kokrajhar, Baksa, Udalguri and Chirang are the four districts in Assam that constitute the Bodo Territorial Area District (BTAD).

The order of district from west to east- Kokrajhar, Chirang, Baksa and Udalguri

Hence, option A is correct.

  

Q3. Consider the following statements about star campaigner

  1. The election commission does not have the power to reduce the number of star campaigners for a recognized political party.
  2. The expenditure incurred on campaigning by star campaigners is added to the election expenditure of a candidate.
  3. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within six months from the date of notification of an election.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. None

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statement 1,2 and 3: The Election Commission has recently revised norms for star campaigners for polls during the pandemic. It proposed following changes:

  • The maximum number of star campaigners has been reduced from 40 to 30 for a recognised party.
  • The number of star campaigners has been reduced from 20 to 15 for unrecognised registered parties and  now, they require permission from the district election official 48 hours prior to campaigning

About Star Campaigners:

  • A recognised political party can have 40 star campaigners and an unrecognised (but registered) political party can have 20.
  • They can be described as persons who are nominated by parties to campaign in a given set of Constituencies. However, according to law or the Election Commission of India, there are no specific definitions.
  • The expenditure incurred on campaigning by such campaigners is exempt from being added to the election expenditure of a candidate. However, this only applies when a star campaigner limits herself to a general campaign for the political party she represents.
  • The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within a week from the date of notification of an election.

So, all statements are incorrect and hence, option D is correct.

  

Q4. Consider the following statements

  1. The right to protest peacefully is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
  2. The right to freedom of speech is subject to “reasonable restrictions” under Articles 19(2) and 19(3) of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B)

Explanation:      

Statement 1 and 2: Supreme Court has recently upheld the right to peaceful protest against the law but also cleared that public ways and public spaces cannot be occupied and that too indefinitely.

The right to protest peacefully is guaranteed by the Constitution of India.

The right to freedom of speech is subject to “reasonable restrictions” under Articles 19(2) and 19(3). These include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

  

Q5. Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report is a biennial report of-

  1. World Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. United Nations Development Programme
  4. World Economic Forum

Solution: A)

Explanation: Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report is a biennial report of the World Bank.

Key findings of Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report 2020:

  • The COVID-19 pandemic may push another 88 million to 115 million into extreme poverty this year.
  • Many of the newly poor individuals will be from countries that already have high poverty rates. As per the Bank’s projections, Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia will be badly hit.
  • Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by Covid-19. This will exacerbate the impact of conflict and climate change, which were already slowing down poverty reduction.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

 Q6.  Which of the following visas allow food and agricultural workers to seek employment in the US?

  1. H-2B visas
  2. L1 visas
  3. J-1 Visas
  4. H-1B visas

Solution: A)

Explanation:

The US administration issues a certain number of visas each year in order to fill a vacuum of highly-skilled low-cost employees in IT and other related domains.

L1 visas: it allows companies to transfer highly skilled workers to US for a period of up to seven years.

J-1 Visas is for students on work-study summer programmes.

H-2B visa: it allows food and agricultural workers to seek employment in the US.

H-1B is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ graduate level foreign workers in specialty occupations (requires a higher education degree of its equivalent). Nonimmigrant visas are for foreign nationals wishing to enter the United States on a temporary basis while immigrant visas are issued to foreign nationals who intend to live permanently in the United States.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding antitrust laws

  1. There is no antitrust law in India.
  2. These are also referred to as competition laws.
  3. They promote unfair competition in an open-market economy.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: About Antitrust laws:

  • These are also known as competition laws.
  • They ensure that fair competition exists in an open-market economy and guard against would-be monopolies and disruptions to the productive ebb and flow of competition.
  • The Competition Act, 2002 is the antitrust law of India. On the recommendations of Raghavan committee, the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by this act. 

The Competition Act, 2002 regulates combinations (Mergers and Acquisition), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India. It prohibits anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position by enterprises.

So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q8. Gorkhaland Territorial Administration is an Autonomous District Council of which state?

  1. Assam
  2. Meghalaya
  3. West Bengal
  4. Manipur

Solution: C)

Explanation:

About Gorkhaland Territorial Administration:

  • It was formed in 2011 as a result of tripartite agreement between the West Bengal government, the Centre and the Gorkha Janmukti Morcha (GJM). It was formed to replace the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council.
  • It is an Autonomous District Council for the Darjeeling and Kalimpong areas of the West Bengal, India.

Hence, option C is correct.

 

 Q9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Natural Gas?

  1. It is the cleanest fossil fuels among the available fossil fuels.
  2. It consists primarily of butane.
  3. The United States has the largest natural gas reserves in the world.
  4. It creates carbon dioxide during oxidation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2, 3 and 4: About Natural Gas:

  • It is the cleanest fossil fuels among the available fossil fuels.
  • It consists primarily of methane and propane, butane, hexane and pentane, are also present.
  • It is a potent greenhouse gas itself when released into the atmosphere.
  • It creates carbon dioxide during oxidation.
  • Russia has the largest natural gas reserves in the world
  • Uses:
  • It is used as a fuel for electricity generation, heating purpose in industrial and commercial units as well as used as a feedstock in the manufacture of fertilizers, plastics and other commercially important organic chemicals
  • Used for cooking in domestic households.
  • It is used in rubber compounding operations

So, statement 1 and 4 are correct and statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

 Q10. Which of the following pollutant(s) is/are measured in the National Air Quality Index?

  1. Carbon Monoxide
  2. Nitrogen Dioxide
  3. Ammonia
  4. Carbon Dioxide

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 2 and 4 only
  2. 1,2 and 3 only
  3. 1,2 and 4 only
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: B)

Explanation:

About National Air Quality Index:

  • It was launched in 2014 and developed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in consultation with IIT-Kanpur and an expert group comprising medical and air-quality professionals.
  • Following eight pollutants are the major parameters in deriving the AQI of an area- Particulate Matter (PM10), Particulate Matter (PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), and Lead (Pb).
  • It has six categories of air quality, namely, Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor and Severe.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

 

Q11. Consider the following statements

  1. Anyone who watches television for more than one hour is considered a viewer.
  2. In India, Bar-O-Meters are used by the Broadcast Audience Research Council to the record the target rating point (TRP).
  3. Bar-O-Meters are installed on televisions in all households in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statement 1, 2 and 3: About target rating point (TRP):

  • It is a metric used in marketing and advertising to indicate the percentage of the target audience reached by a campaign or advertisement through a communication medium.
  • A viewer is any person who watches television for more than a minute.
  • In India, to record TRP, Broadcast Audience Research Council uses Bar­-O­-Meters that are installed on televisions in se­lected households.
  • Audio watermarks are em­bedded in video content prior to broadcast. These watermarks are not audible to the human ear, but can easily be detected and decoded using dedicated hardware and software.

So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

  

Q12. Which of the following countries does not share a border with Afghanistan?

  1. Kyrgyzstan
  2. Turkmenistan
  3. Azerbaijan
  4. Uzbekistan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1,2,3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 4 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

About Afghanistan:

  • It is a landlocked country at the crossroads of Central and South Asia.
  • It is bordered by Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Pakistan in east and south, Iran in west, and it has a small stretch of border in north east with both China and India.

Hence, option A is correct.