GK Quiz | 21 September 2020

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding free Trade Agreement:

1. It is an arrangement between two or more countries or trading blocs to reduce barriers to imports and exports among them.
2. It covers trade in goods only.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About Free Trade Agreement:

• FTA between two or more countries or trading blocs primarily agrees to reduce or eliminate customs tariff and non-tariff barriers on substantial trade between them.
• It reduces or eliminates barriers to trade across international borders
• It covers trade in goods such as agricultural or industrial products or trade in services such as banking and trading.
• FTA partners get easier market access into one another’s countries by eliminating tariffs and some non-tariff barriers

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Right to Education (RTE) Act, the private unaided institutions and special category schools shall provide free and compulsory education to at least 50% children belonging to DG/EWS category admitted to class I or pre-primary classes.
2. Right to education is a fundamental right in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About Right to Education Act (RTE):

• It provided free and compulsory education to children in 2009 and enforced it as a fundamental right under Article 21-A.
• Under the act, the private unaided institutions and special category schools shall provide free and compulsory education to at least 25% children belonging to DG/EWS category admitted to class I or pre-primary classes. The schools will be entitled to claim reimbursement for this.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q3. Bamboo can be used as-

1. Food
2. Building and construction material
3. A substitute for wood

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

World Bamboo Day is celebrated every year on 18 September.

About Bamboos:

• These are evergreen perennial flowering plants in the subfamily Bambusoideae of the grass family Poaceae.
• It is also called ‘poor man’s timber’ due to its versatile nature and multiple uses.
• It can be used as food, building and construction material, a substitute for wood, for handicrafts and paper.
• It is a good soil binder and plays an important role in soil and water conservation.
• India has the highest area (13.96 million hectares) under bamboo, according to the National Bamboo Mission. It is the second richest country after China in terms of bamboo diversity with 136 species.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements about Arsenic:

1. It is a metalloid.
2. It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
3. According to the WHO’s guidelines for drinking water quality (2011), the permissible limit of Arsenic in groundwater is 0.05 mg per litre.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: The number of arsenic-affected habitations in the country increased by 145% in the last five years, according to the data shared with the Parliament.

About Arsenic:

• Arsenic is naturally present at high levels in the earth’s crust and groundwater of several countries.
• It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
• It is a metalloid, which is an element that has properties that are intermediate between those of metals and nonmetals.
• Long-term exposure to Arsenic from drinking-water and food can cause cancer, skin disease, cardiovascular disease and diabetes
• According to the WHO’s guidelines for drinking water quality (2011), the permissible limit of Arsenic in groundwater is 0.01 mg per litre.

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

Q5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect with reference to the National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP)?

1. It was launched in 2000.
2. It aims is to enable all households to have access to and use safe and adequate drinking water within premises to the extent possible.
3. It is a centrally Sponsored Scheme.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP):

• It was launched in 2009
• It aims is to enable all households to have access to and use safe and adequate drinking water within premises to the extent possible
• It is a centrally Sponsored Scheme with 50:50 fund sharing between the Centre and the States.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q6. Phase III of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) gives priorities to

1. Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs)
2. Higher Secondary Schools
3. Hospitals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Solution: D)

Explanation:

About Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):

• It was launched on 25 December 2000.
• Its objective is to provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road to unconnected habitations.
• Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana-lll (PMGSY-III) was approved by the Cabinet during July 2019.
• Under the PMGSY-III Scheme, it is proposed to consolidate 1,25,000 Km road length in the States
• It involves the consolidation of Through Routes and Major Rural Links connecting habitations to
• Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs)
• Higher Secondary Schools and
• Hospitals.
• Funding pattern:  The finds will be shared in the ratio of 60:40 between the Centre and State, while for the Northeast and the Himalayan states, it will be 90:10.

Hence, option D is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements about VAIBHAV Summit:

1. It is a global summit of Overseas and Resident Indian scientists and academicians.
2. It is organized by IIT Bombay.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Vaishwik Bharatiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) Summit will be inaugurated on 2 October 2020 (the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi).

About VAIBHAV Summit:

• It is a global summit of Overseas and Resident Indian scientists and academicians.
• Key areas of discussion of the summit will include: Artificial intelligence, quantum technologies, and machine learning, communications technologies, computational and data sciences and aerospace technologies, among others.
• It is a collaborative initiative by the Science and Technology and Academic Organizations of India.
• Objectives:
• To bring out the comprehensive roadmap to leverage the expertise and knowledge of global Indian researchers for solving emerging challenges.
• To create an ecosystem of Knowledge and Innovation in the country through global outreach
• To reflect in-depth on the collaboration and cooperation instruments with academia and scientists in India.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding no-confidence motion:

1. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. It is clearly mentioned in the Constitution of India.
3. It can be admitted when a minimum of 50 members supports the motion in the house.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Around 47 members of opposition parties moved a notice for no-confidence motion against Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh Singh, accusing him of violating Parliamentary procedures in trying to pass the farm sector Bills in haste. But the no-confidence motion passed against the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is different from that passed in Lok Sabha against the council of Ministers.

About no-confidence motion:

• It is a parliamentary motion which is moved in the Lok Sabha against the entire council of ministers, stating that they are no longer deemed fit to hold positions of responsibility due to their inadequacy in some respect or their failure to carry out their obligations.
• It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
• No prior reason needs to be given for moving a no-confidence motion.
• The Constitution of India does not mention either a Confidence or a No-Confidence Motion.
• It can be admitted when a minimum of 50 members support the motion in the house.
• The Government has to resign if the motion is passed in the house.

So, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

Q9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding Minimum Support Prices (MSPs)?

1. It is the minimum price set by the Government at which farmers can expect to sell their produce for the season.
2. MSP is fixed on the recommendation of the Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs.
3. Inter-crop price parity is one of the factors taken into consideration for fixing MSP.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Solution: B)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the minimum price set by the Government at which farmers can expect to sell their produce for the season.

• It is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), and announced by the Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs for various crops at the beginning of each sowing season
• Following are some factors taken into consideration for fixing MSP:
• Demand and supply
• Cost of production
• Price trends in the market, both domestic and international
• Inter-crop price parity
• Terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture
• A minimum of 50% as the margin over cost of production
• Likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product

So, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option B is correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements about the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):

1. It is a statutory body.
2. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. Its suggestions are binding on the Government.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. None

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: About Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

• It was formed in 1965 as the Agricultural Prices Commission and renamed as CACP in 1985.
• It recommends the MSPs of the notified Kharif and Rabi crops to the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Its suggestions are not binding on the Government.
• It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.

So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.