My id is: General Knowledge Quiz | 4 December 2020

GK Quiz 4 December 2020

2020-12-04 | 7 minutes

TOPIC: GS 2 - Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.

Q1: Under which of the following circumstances is the Attorney General’s consent not required?

  1. When a private citizen wants to initiate a case of contempt of court against a person.
  2. When the court itself initiates a contempt of court case.
  3. Both A and B
  4. Neither A nor B

Solution: B)

Explanation: Under Article 129, Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself. Under Article 215, every High Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Under the Contempt of Courts Act 1971, contempt is divided into civil and criminal contempt.

  • Criminal contempt is any act which may result in interference in the due course of a judicial proceeding, scandalizing the court by lowering its authority and an obstruction in the administration of justice.
  • Civil cotempt is willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.

The prior consent in writing of the Attorney General is required for the Supreme Court to initiate criminal contempt action in a case according to the Contempt of Court Act, 1971. The objective behind this is to save the time of the court.  The AG’s consent is mandatory when a private citizen wants to initiate a case of contempt of court against a person. However, the AG’s consent is not required when the court itself initiates a contempt of court case.

Hence, option B is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 - Issues related to health

Q2: Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the WHO World Malaria Report 2020, India is the only high endemic country which has reported a decline of 17.6% in 2019 as compared to 2018.
  2. Malaria is caused by Aedes aegypti mosquito.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: Key highlights of WHO World Malaria Report 2020

  • India is the only high endemic country which has reported a decline of 17.6% in 2019 as compared to 2018.
  • India has made considerable progress in reducing its malaria burden.
  • India has also contributed to the largest drop in cases region-wide, from approximately 20 million to about 6 million. The percentage drop in the malaria cases was 71.8% and in the deaths was 73.9% between 2000 and 2019.
  • The Annual Parasitic Incidence (API) reduced by 27.6% in 2018 compared to 2017 and by 18.4% in 2019 as compared to 2018. India has sustained API less than one since year 2012.

Malaria: It is caused by a parasite that commonly infects a certain type of mosquito which feeds on humans. It spreads by a female Anopheles mosquito, while dengue is caused by Aedes aegypti mosquito.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Challenges to internal security through communication networks, role of media and social networking sites in internal security challenges, basics of cyber security; money-laundering and its prevention.

Q3: Consider the following statements about Biological weapons:

  1. They are any of a number of disease-producing agents.
  2. Like chemical weapons, they are not the weapons of mass destruction.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: About Biological weapons:

  • They are also called germ weapons.
  • They are any of a number of disease-producing agents - such as bacteria, viruses, rickettsiae, fungi, toxins, or other biological agents - that may be utilized as weapons against humans, animals, or plants.
  • Like chemical weapons, radiological weapons, and nuclear weapons, Biological weapons are commonly referred to as weapons of mass destruction.

So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2 – Geography, GS 3 - India and its Neighborhood- Relations

Q4: Sumdorong Chu Valley, frequently seen in news, borders which of the following state/country?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Nagaland
  3. Tibet
  4. Manipur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1,2 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: A)

Explanation:

In 1986–87, a military standoff took place between India and China in the Sumdorong Chu Valley. Sumdorong Chu is a tributary of the Nyamjang Chu River that flows along the disputed Sino-Indian border between the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh and the Cona County of Tibet.

Hence, option A is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 2- Health

Q5: With reference to the Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) Test, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a test that can ascertain the composition of a product at the molecular level.
  2. It is required by Indian law for honey that is being marketed locally.
  3. It is used in quality control and research for determining the content and purity of a sample as well as its molecular structure.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1,2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None

Solution: C)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Recently, 10 out of 13 honey brands from India have failed in this ‘purity test’.

About Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) Test:

  • It is an analytical chemistry technique used in quality control and research for determining the content and purity of a sample as well as its molecular structure.
  • It is a test that can ascertain the composition of a product at the molecular level.
  • It is not required by Indian law for honey that is being marketed locally but is needed for export.

So, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option C is correct.

 

TOPIC: GS 3 - Indian Economy and issues relating to Planning, Mobilization of Resources, Growth, Development and Employment.

Q6: Consider the following statements about Municipal bonds:

  1. They are issued by urban local bodies to raise money for financing specific projects such as infrastructure projects.
  2. They are regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  3. To issue municipal bonds, municipalities must not have defaulted in any loan repayments in the last one year.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. None

Solution: D)

Explanation:

Statements 1,2 and 3: Lucknow has become the 9th city in the country to raise capital fund through Municipal Bonds.

About Municipal Bonds:

  • They are bonds issued by urban local bodies to raise money for financing specific projects such as infrastructure projects.
  • They are regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  • To issue municipal bonds, municipalities must not have –
    • defaulted in any loan repayments in the last one year and
    • negative net worth in any of the three preceding financial years

So, all statements are correct and hence, option D is correct.